HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 1 of 108
A 48-year-old man with schizophrenia on thioridazine for 20 years develops bilateral facial and jaw movements and rhythmic motions of his tongue. Physical examination of the heart, lungs, and abdomen are unremarkable. What is the most likely aberration on a neurotransmitter level?
A
Acetylcholine
B
Dopamine
C
Epinephrine
D
Norepinephrine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 2 of 108
α-Glucosidase, an enzyme that is inhibited by acarbose, is responsible for:
A
Untwisting of DNA strands during cancer cell replication
B
Resistance to cephalosporins
C
Carbohydrate digestion in and absorption from the gut
D
Toxicity caused by methotrexate
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 3 of 108
A novel medication to treat gastric motility disorders will act at the terminal step in the synthesis/breakdown of acetylcholine. Which of the following is the terminal step in the synthesis and release of acetylcholine?
A
Degradation
B
Release of neurotransmitter
C
Recycling of choline
D
Synthesis
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 4 of 108
A 28-year-old man is hospitalized on the trauma service with multiple organ system failure after sustaining multiple fractures and internal injuries. His most recent CT scan of the abdomen does not reveal any visceral organ injury. He is currently on an intravenous epinephrine drip to maintain his blood pressure and heart rate. His most recent laboratory studies reveal a blood glucose level of 425 mg/dL. What is the most likely explanation of this finding?
A
Hepatic glycogenolysis
B
Hepatic gluconeogenesis
C
Pancreatic failure
D
Pancreatic infarct from trauma
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 5 of 108
Which of the following is a sign of deep anesthesia?
A
Appearance of tears in eyes
B
Resistance to passive inflation of lungs
C
Fall in blood pressure
D
Patient makes swallowing movements
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 6 of 108
Which of the following is a reversible inhibitor of platelet cyclooxygenase?
A
Alprostadil
B
Aspirin
C
Ibuprofen
D
LTC4
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 7 of 108
The skeletal muscle relaxant with the longest duration of action is:
A
Suxamethonium
B
Mivacurium
C
Pancuronium
D
Rocuronium
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 8 of 108
Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest half-life?
A
Alprazolam
B
Oxazepam
C
Clonazepam
D
Midazolam
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 9 of 108
Angel dust refers to
A
LSD
B
Phencyclidine
C
MDMA
D
MDA
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 10 of 108
Which of the following local anaesthetics cause arteriolar vasoconstriction?
A
Lidocaine
B
Cocaine
C
Procaine
D
Prilocaine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 11 of 108
The brief duration of action of an ultra-short acting barbiturate is due to
A
Slow rate of metabolism in the liver
B
Low lipid solubility, resulting in minimal concentration in the brain
C
High degree of binding to plasma proteins
D
Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 12 of 108
The difference between autonomic and somatic nerves are all except
A
Somatic nerves do not contain peripheral ganglia unlike autonomic nerves
B
Motor nerves to skeletal muscles are myelinated while postganglionic autonomic nerves are unmyelinated
C
The presynaptic transmitter in both the cases is different
D
None of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 13 of 108
The drug of choice for status epilepticus is
A
Clonazepam
B
Diazepam
C
Lorazepam
D
Alprazolam
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 14 of 108
Which of the following drugs is a volatile substance that is administered by inhalation?
A
Thiopental
B
Halothane
C
Alprazolam
D
Buspirone
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 15 of 108
A 52-year-old woman with end-stage multiple sclerosis who is currently taking several medications including prednisone and neostigmine is seen by a new physician. After examination, the patient has begun on dalfampridine. What is the most likely mechanism of action for this medication?
A
Calcium channel blocker
B
Cholinesterase inhibitor
C
Permeability enhancer
D
Potassium channel blocker
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 16 of 108
Synthesis of norepinephrine occurs from
A
Tyramine
B
Tryptophan
C
Tyrosine
D
Tetracaine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 17 of 108
Which of the following opioid antagonists is used as an adjunct to prevent relapse in addicts following detoxification because of its long half-life?
A
Nalorphine
B
Naltrexone
C
Naloxone
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 18 of 108
If one patient is taking amitriptyline and another patient is taking chlorpromazine, they are both likely to experience
A
Excessive salivation
B
Postural hypotension
C
Gynecomastia
D
Increased gastrointestinal motility
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 19 of 108
The maximum daily dose of Alprazolam is
A
Anxiolytic
B
Sedative
C
Antidepressant
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 20 of 108
A 42-year-old woman with feelings of sadness, despair, and tearfulness presents to her primary care physician for management. She has no prior medical or surgical history. Therapy with bupropion has begun. The treating physician must be aware of which of the following contraindications?
A
Anorexia
B
Depression
C
Seasonal affective disorder
D
Transient ischemic attacks
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 21 of 108
A patient with type II diabetes was well controlled by sulphonylurea drugs, he then developed hyperglycemia. What is the drug most probably interacting with the oral sulphonylurea?
A
NSAIDs
B
Thiazide diuretics
C
Sulfonamides
D
Metformin
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 22 of 108
Isoetharine is a drug that stimulates primarily which receptors?
A
Alpha
B
Histamine
C
Beta 1
D
Beta 2
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 23 of 108
What is the usual response to digoxin in a patient with atrial fibrillation?
A
Restoration of normal sinus rhythm
B
Conversion of atrial fibrillation to atrial flutter
C
Increase in atrial fibrillation frequency, but decrease in ventricular rate
D
Decrease in atrial fibrillation frequency, but increase in ventricular rate
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 24 of 108
Which of the following is the most suitable drug for a 6-year-old girl suffering from absence seizures with occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures?
A
Ethosuximide
B
Sodium valproate
C
Carbamazepine
D
Phenytoin
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 25 of 108
Stimulation of inhibitory neurons causes which of the following effects at the postsynaptic membrane?
A
Binding of GABA at the postsynaptic membrane
B
Depolarization
C
Stimulation of epinephrine
D
Transient decrease in permeability of chloride
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 26 of 108
Peripheral conversion of levodopa to dopamine is facilitated by
A
Thiamine
B
Riboflavin
C
Pyridoxine
D
Cyanocobalamin
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 27 of 108
Diamprit is an agonist of ______ receptors, except
A
H1
B
H2
C
H3
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 28 of 108
The antiparkinsonian drug which acts by inhibiting the degradation of dopamine in the brain is
A
Carbidopa
B
Amantadine
C
Selegiline
D
Bromocriptine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 29 of 108
A 44-year-old woman is diagnosed with hypothyroidism and prescribed levothyroxine. Concerning levothyroxine sodium:
A
It is a synthetic sodium salt of thyroxine (T4)
B
Enhanced biliary excretion of levothyroxine occurs during the administration of drugs that induce hepatic CYPs, such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampin
C
Is the hormone of choice for thyroid hormone replacement therapy
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 30 of 108
A 47-year-old man presents with acute pain in his big toe. Lab tests reveal a serum uric acid level of 10 mg/dl. After he was treated for the acute attack he was shifted to a drug that decreases both serum and urine level of uric acid. Which of the following is the prescribed drug?
A
Allopurinol
B
Colchicine
C
Indomethacin
D
Probenecid
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 31 of 108
The barbiturate of choice for induction of anaesthesia is
A
Pentothal
B
Thiamylal
C
Methohexital
D
Etomidate
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 32 of 108
Morphine stimulates
A
Biliary and pancreatic secretions
B
Nonpropulsive rhythmic contractions of small intestine
C
Propulsive contractions in small intestine
D
Propulsive peristaltic waves in colon
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 33 of 108
In humans, sedation caused by morphine is characterized by
A
Initial excitement
B
Little or no motor incoordination
C
Rise in seizure threshold
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 34 of 108
Which of the following anticonvulsant drugs is used for prophylactic treatment of mood swings (i.e., manic-depression illness) in patients unresponsive to lithium carbonate?
A
Phenobarbitone
B
Phenytoin
C
Ethosuximide
D
Carbamazepine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 35 of 108
Opioid analgesics provide symptomatic relief of
A
Pain
B
Cough
C
Diarrhea
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 36 of 108
The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is
A
Proximal tubule
B
Ascending limb of loop of Henle
C
Cortical diluting segment
D
Collecting ducts
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 37 of 108
Phenelzine and tranylcypromine belong to which one of the following group (class) of antidepressants?
A
Tricyclic antidepressants
B
MAO inhibitors
C
5-HT uptake inhibitors
D
Atypical antidepressant drugs
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 38 of 108
Which of the following is a direct serotonin agonist?
A
Fluoxetine
B
Amitriptyline
C
Sumatriptan
D
Ondansetron
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 39 of 108
A 9-year-old boy is sent for neurologic evaluation because of episodes of apparent confusion. Over the past year, the child has experienced episodes during which he develops a blank look on his face and fails to respond to questions. Moreover, it appears to take several minutes before the boy recovers from the episodes. Which one of the following best describes this patient's seizures?
A
Absence
B
Complex partial
C
Myoclonic
D
Simple partial
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 40 of 108
Pyritinol (pyrithioxine) is used as
A
Analeptic drug
B
Cerebroactive drug
C
Antiepileptic drug
D
Antidepressant drug
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 41 of 108
If phenelzine is administered to a patient taking fluoxetine, the most likely result is
A
Antagonism of the antidepressant action of fluoxetine
B
A decrease in the plasma levels of fluoxetine
C
Agitation, muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, seizures
D
Priapism
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 42 of 108
The corticosteroid with a longer duration of action is
A
Cortisone
B
Prednisone
C
Betamethasone
D
Fludrocortisone
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 43 of 108
The following drug is indicated in petit mal epilepsy:
A
Carbamazepine
B
Ethosuximide
C
Phenytoin
D
Phenobarbital
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 44 of 108
Which of the following chemicals is most likely to function as a neurotransmitter in hierarchical systems?
A
Dopamine
B
Glutamate
C
Metenkephalin
D
Norepinephrine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 45 of 108
Which of the following statements about lithium is not correct?
A
It has a sedative action in normal individuals
B
It controls mania, but takes 1-2 weeks to produce the effect
C
It has prophylactic effect in recurrent unipolar depression
D
It can be combined with tricyclic antidepressants for refractory cases of major depression
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 46 of 108
A 47-year-old woman is recovering from a hysterectomy. Her physician prescribes an opioid analgesic as needed for postoperative pain. Opioids can cause many effects in addition to analgesia including constipation, respiratory depression, euphoria, miosis, and drowsiness. With prolonged use, tolerance develops to most of these effects. Which of the following effects persists in spite of tolerance leading to a decrease in the other effects?
A
Analgesia
B
Constipation
C
Drowsiness
D
Euphoria
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 47 of 108
In the GI tract, serotonin causes
A
Contraction of gastrointestinal muscles
B
Decreased muscle tone
C
Decreased peristalsis
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 48 of 108
Which one of the following statements about bromocriptine is accurate?
A
It should not be administered to patients taking antimuscarinic drugs
B
Effectiveness in Parkinson's disease requires its metabolic conversion to an active metabolite
C
The drug is contraindicated in patients with a history of psychosis
D
The drug should not be administered to patients already taking levodopa
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 49 of 108
Injection of local anesthetic directly into tissue without considering cutaneous nerves is
A
Infiltration anesthesia
B
Field block anesthesia
C
Nerve block anesthesia
D
All of the above
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 50 of 108
Respiratory depression following use of this agent may be reversed by administration of flumazenil
A
Desflurane
B
Fentanyl
C
Ketamine
D
Midazolam
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 51 of 108
Parenteral calcium is used as an antidote for which of the following situations?
A
Verapamil overdoses
B
Hyperkalemia
C
Cocaine intoxication
D
Verapamil overdoses and hyperkalemia
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 52 of 108
All of the following statements about fluoxetine are correct EXCEPT:
A
It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
B
It is used in treatment of epilepsy
C
It may cause anxiety and insomnia
D
It may cause sexual dysfunction
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 53 of 108
A 50-year-old man has a history of frequent episodes of renal colic with high calcium renal stones. The most useful agent in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is
A
Mannitol
B
Furosemide
C
Spironolactone
D
Hydrochlorothiazide
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 54 of 108
Colchicine
A
Is used for treatment and prevention of acute gouty arthritis
B
Causes cellular proliferation
C
Is an effective analgesic in osteoarthritis
D
Enhances uric acid excretion
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 55 of 108
Vivactil (protriptyline) is used mainly as a (an)
A
Analgesic
B
Muscle relaxant
C
Cardiotonic
D
Antidepressant
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 56 of 108
The anti-inflammatory action of aspirin is due to:
A
Analgesic effect
B
Inhibit leukotriene synthesis
C
Inhibit prostaglandin synthesis
D
Effect on hypothalamus
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 57 of 108
The following drugs are adrenocorticoid antagonists EXCEPT:
A
Metyrapone
B
Mifepristone
C
Raloxifene
D
Ketoconazole
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 58 of 108
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is often useful in
A
Thyrotoxicosis
B
Petit mal epilepsy
C
Myasthenia gravis
D
Bronchial asthma
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 59 of 108
Which of the following drugs is potentially dangerous in a single-drug overdose?
A
Moclobemide
B
Paroxetine
C
Sertraline
D
Amoxapine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 60 of 108
Which of the following is both alpha and beta blocker?
A
Propranolol
B
Esmolol
C
Labetalol
D
Metoprolol
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 61 of 108
Four stages of general anesthesia are distinctly seen with the use of
A
Halothane
B
Diethyl ether
C
Nitrous oxide
D
Enflurane
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 62 of 108
Regarding adverse effects of propofol, which statement is true?
A
Post-op vomiting is common
B
Hypertension is a complication
C
Severe acidosis can occur with its use in pediatric rapid respiratory infections
D
It is positively inotropic
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Question 63 of 108
Human insulin is derived from:
A
Human donors
B
Recombinant DNA technology
C
Enzymatic cleavage of porcine insulin
D
Filtration of bovine insulin
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 64 of 108
The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not for angina pectoris is
A
Verapamil
B
Diltiazem
C
Flunarizine
D
Amlodipine
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 65 of 108
Select the longer acting ocular beta blocker
A
Timolol
B
Betaxolol
C
Cartelol
D
Levobunolol
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 66 of 108
What group of drugs is known to treat schizophrenia?
A
Antipsychotics
B
Barbiturates
C
SSRIs
D
Phenytoin
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 67 of 108
All of the following are therapeutic indications for aspirin EXCEPT:
A
Rheumatoid arthritis
B
Fevers
C
Viral infection in children
D
Unstable angina
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 68 of 108
The drug of choice in the treatment of hypertensive emergency is
A
Guanethidine
B
Reserpine
C
Diazoxide
D
Furosemide
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Question 69 of 108
Lorazepam can be used for preanesthetic sedation in patients with liver dysfunction because it is
A
A selective anxiolytic like buspirone
B
Actively secreted in the renal proximal tubule
C
Conjugated extrahepatically
D
Eliminated via the lungs
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Question 70 of 108
Use of morphine in preanesthetic medication
A
Is routine except in the presence of contraindications
B
Is restricted to patients being anesthetized with ether
C
Should be made only in combination with atropine
D
Is restricted mostly to patients in pain preoperatively
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Question 71 of 108
Which tissue is most sensitive to vasopressin?
A
Vascular smooth muscle
B
Intestinal smooth muscle
C
Renal collecting ducts
D
Uterus
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Question 72 of 108
Five patients are seen by their primary care physician because of chronic anxiety. Benzodiazepines are being considered for each of the patients. Which of the following patients would be best suited for this medication?
A
A 31-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant
B
A 32-year-old woman with alcoholic liver disease and HIV disease
C
A 36-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disorder
D
A 39-year-old man with alcoholic liver disease
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Question 73 of 108
Phenytoin is used in treatment of all of the following EXCEPT:
A
Petit mal epilepsy
B
Status epilepticus
C
Partial seizures
D
Digitalis induced cardiac arrhythmia
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Question 74 of 108
The dynorphins are endogenous ligands for
A
µ
B
δ
C
κ
D
ÃÂÆ’
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Question 75 of 108
Chronic use of this antiseizure drug causes coarsening facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia, and osteomalacia.
A
Carbamazepine
B
Ethosuximide
C
Gabapentin
D
Phenytoin
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Question 76 of 108
Aspirin could be used prophylactically for which one of the following conditions:
A
Bronchial asthma
B
Thrombo-embolic diseases
C
Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
D
Peptic ulcer
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Question 77 of 108
Which of the following does not cause skeletal muscle contractions or twitching?
A
Acetylcholine
B
Nicotine
C
Strychnine
D
Vecuronium
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Question 78 of 108
A 45-year-old surgeon has developed morning stiffness in her hands and wants to avoid GI side effects. Which drug is most appropriate?
A
Aspirin
B
Celecoxib
C
Ibuprofen
D
Indomethacin
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Question 79 of 108
Some NSAIDs exert effects by
A
Inhibiting leukocyte migration
B
Inhibiting leukotriene synthesis
C
Stabilizing lysosomal membranes
D
All of the above
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Question 80 of 108
A 24-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of vague abdominal pain, headaches, sweating, and unintentional weight loss. Urinalysis reveals elevated levels of catecholamine metabolites. Which of the following is a metabolite specific to the breakdown of epinephrine?
A
Dihydroxyphenylalanine
B
Dihydroxymandelic acid
C
Homovanillic acid
D
Metanephrine
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Question 81 of 108
Following are the MAO-inhibitors, except
A
Tranylcypromine
B
Nomifensine
C
Moclobemide
D
Isocarboxazid
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Question 82 of 108
Which component of sulfasalazine is responsible for the therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis?
A
Sulfapyridine
B
5-aminosalicylic acid
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Intact sulfasalazine molecule
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Question 83 of 108
A 28-year-old woman with infertility and anovulation is treated with clomiphene citrate. The mechanism of action of clomiphene is:
A
Competitive antagonist of estrogen receptor
B
Selective estrogen receptor modulator SERMs with tissue-selective actions
C
Clomiphene decreases gonadotropin secretion
D
Is used for the treatment of breast cancer in women
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 84 of 108
A 10-year-old boy has nocturnal enuresis, the physician writes an order for a low dose of Imipramine. After a couple of weeks on the drug, the episodes of bed-wetting decrease dramatically. Which of the following best accounts for the beneficial effects of the drug in this patient?
A
Alleviate depression signs and symptoms by increasing neuronal catecholamine reuptake
B
Blocks muscarinic receptors in the bladder
C
Causes sedation such that the boy sleeps without voiding
D
Releases antidiuretic hormone
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Question 85 of 108
A 78-year-old man with a long history of seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin presents to his dentist for routine follow-up. Which of the following findings must the dentist be concerned about and evaluate for?
A
Dental caries
B
Exposed nerve roots
C
Jaw bone exposure
D
Gingival overgrowth
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Question 86 of 108
Reflex tachycardia, headache, and postural hypotension are adverse effects that limit the use of which of the following antihypertensive agents?
A
Hydralazine
B
Captopril
C
Methyldopa
D
Guanethidine
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Question 87 of 108
Which of the following is characteristic of vitamin D-resistant rickets?
A
Elevated 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
B
Expression confined to males
C
Glycosuria
D
Normal parathyroid hormone levels
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Question 88 of 108
A young male patient diagnosed as schizophrenic develops severe muscle cramps with torticollis a short time after drug therapy is initiated with haloperidol. The best course of action would be to
A
Add clozapine to the drug regimen
B
Discontinue haloperidol and observe the patient
C
Give oral diphenhydramine
D
Inject benztropine
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Question 89 of 108
Which one of the following actions of opioid analgesics is mediated via activation of kappa receptors?
A
Cerebral vascular dilation
B
Decreased uterine tone
C
Euphoria
D
Sedation
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 90 of 108
The emetic action of morphine is due to
A
Irritation of the GI tract
B
Stimulation of the cerebral cortex
C
Stimulation of the medullary vomiting center
D
Stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone
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HESI LPN · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
Question 91 of 108
Oral antidiabetic drugs include the following EXCEPT:
A
Metformin
B
Mefloquine
C
Pioglitazone
D
Tolbutamide
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Question 92 of 108
A patient with epilepsy is treated with a drug which causes psychotic behaviors. Of the following antiepileptic agents, which is associated with the highest risk of causing psychosis?
A
Valproic acid
B
Vigabatrin
C
Phenobarbital
D
Phenytoin
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Question 93 of 108
Which of the following is an agonist-antagonist opioid analgesic?
A
Pethidine
B
Pentazocine
C
Fentanyl
D
Buprenorphine
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Question 94 of 108
Drugs useful in treatment of schizophrenia include the following EXCEPT:
A
Thioridazine
B
Theophylline
C
Clozapine
D
Trifluprazine
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Question 95 of 108
Match each description of a β-blocker with the most appropriate β-adrenergic blocking agent.
A
Esmolol
B
Labetalol
C
Bisoprolol
D
Pindolol
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Question 96 of 108
Effects of morphine on CNS include all of the following EXCEPT:
A
Miosis
B
Respiratory depression
C
Anticonvulsant effect
D
Depression of cough reflex
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Question 97 of 108
Aspirin reduces fever by
A
Decreasing heat production in the body
B
Enhancing cutaneous blood flow
C
Inducing sweating
D
Both (b) and (c)
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Question 98 of 108
A woman taking haloperidol develops a spectrum of adverse effects that include the amenorrhea-galactorrhea syndrome and extrapyramidal dysfunction. Her psychiatrist prescribes a newer antipsychotic drug that improves both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia with fewer dopamine receptor blockade side effects. Since weekly blood tests are not deemed necessary, the drug prescribed by the psychiatrist is probably
A
Bupropion
B
Clozapine
C
Nefazodone
D
Olanzapine
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Question 99 of 108
Which of the following glucocorticoids has significant mineralocorticoid activity also?
A
Hydrocortisone
B
Triamcinolone
C
Dexamethasone
D
Betamethasone
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Question 100 of 108
The drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is
A
Aspirin
B
Imipramine
C
Carbamazepine
D
Valproic acid
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Question 101 of 108
The neurotransmitter released at the end of the sympathetic nerve fibre is
A
Epinephrine
B
Furosemide
C
Enalapril
D
Amrinone
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Question 102 of 108
The early pregnancy uterus is sensitive to the following oxytocic
A
Oxytocin
B
Methylergometrine
C
Prostaglandin F2α
D
Both (a) and (b)
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Question 103 of 108
Furosemide is preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by
A
Asthma
B
Hyperuricemia
C
Diabetes
D
Congestive heart failure
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Question 104 of 108
The cotransmitter may serve the following function/functions
A
Regulate the release of the primary transmitter
B
Alter postjunctional action of the primary transmitter
C
Act as an alternative transmitter
D
All of the above
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Question 105 of 108
Which of the following opioid analgesics is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating?
A
Methadone
B
Buprenorphine
C
Butorphanol
D
Dextropropoxyphene
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Question 106 of 108
A manic patient has been brought to the hospital with nonstop talking, singing, uncontrollable behavior, and apparent loss of contact with reality. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug for rapid control of his symptoms?
A
Lithium carbonate
B
Diazepam
C
Haloperidol
D
Chloral hydrate
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Question 107 of 108
Hypnotic benzodiazepines increase the period of time spent in the following stage of sleep
A
Stage II
B
Stage III
C
Stage IV
D
REM stage
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Question 108 of 108
An 8-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after seizure-like activity. During class, the teacher noted that the boy stare off for about 45 s. He has done this three times in the past. He would not respond to her during the episode and was confused for about 1 min following it. What is the most appropriate first-line therapy for this child?
A
Carbamazepine
B
Ethosuximide
C
Lamotrigine
D
Phenytoin
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