ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 1 of 109
Pulmonary edema is characterized by:
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Rationale
Option C: All of the above alterations accurately describe the pathophysiological changes associated with pulmonary edema. Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, increased hydrostatic pressure, and a rise in pulmonary venous pressure all contribute to fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to pulmonary edema. These changes reflect the underlying cardiac and vascular dynamics that result in this condition.
Option A: Elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure is a contributing factor but does not encompass all alterations involved in pulmonary edema. It is one aspect of the broader pathophysiological picture.
Option B: Increased hydrostatic pressure is a significant factor in pulmonary edema but does not represent the entirety of the alterations that occur. It is part of a complex interplay of factors.
Option D: A rise in pulmonary venous pressure is a critical component of pulmonary edema but does not alone account for all the changes involved. It is one of several alterations that lead to the condition.
Takeaways: Understanding pulmonary edema requires recognizing that it involves multiple alterations, including elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, increased hydrostatic pressure, and a rise in pulmonary venous pressure, which are essential for [managing fluid balance in patients](https://...) effectively.
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ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 2 of 109
For most children with enuresis, the only test recommended is
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Option C: Urinalysis is the only recommended test for most children with enuresis, as it helps identify underlying urinary tract infections or other abnormalities that may contribute to the condition. This non-invasive test provides essential information regarding the child's urinary health and is a standard part of the evaluation process.
Option A: Blood sugar testing is not routinely indicated in the evaluation of enuresis unless there are specific concerns about diabetes mellitus, which is not common in this context.
Option B: Serum electrolytes are not necessary for the initial assessment of enuresis, as they do not typically provide relevant information regarding the causes of bedwetting in children.
Option D: Abdominal sonography is not a first-line test for enuresis and is generally reserved for cases where structural abnormalities are suspected, which is not the case for the majority of children with this condition.
Takeaways: Urinalysis is the primary diagnostic tool for assessing enuresis in children, as it helps identify potential underlying issues such as infections or abnormalities, which is crucial for [effective management and treatment](https://...) of the condition.
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ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 3 of 109
Which of the ff factors predisposes a client to the development of TB?
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Option D: Malnutrition significantly predisposes individuals to the development of tuberculosis (TB) due to its impact on the immune system. A weakened immune response reduces the body's ability to fight off infections, including TB, making malnourished individuals more susceptible to contracting the disease.
Option A: Exposure to toxic gases does not have a direct link to the development of TB. While it can cause respiratory issues, it does not specifically compromise the immune system in a way that increases TB risk.
Option B: Congenital abnormalities may affect overall health but do not specifically predispose individuals to TB. The risk of TB is more closely associated with factors that compromise immune function rather than structural anomalies.
Option C: Obstruction by tumor can lead to respiratory complications but does not inherently increase the risk of TB. The development of TB is primarily related to immune status rather than physical obstruction in the respiratory tract.
Takeaways: Malnutrition is a critical factor that compromises immune function, increasing susceptibility to infections like tuberculosis, emphasizing the need for [nutritional support in at-risk populations](https://...) to enhance immune defense against such diseases.
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Question 4 of 109
Which of the following instructions should Nurse Cheryl include in her teaching plan for the parents of Reggie with otitis media?
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Option D: Avoiding contact with people who have upper respiratory tract infections is essential for preventing further complications in children with otitis media. This condition can be exacerbated by viral infections, making it crucial for parents to limit exposure to sick individuals to reduce the risk of recurrent infections.
Option A: Placing the child in the supine position to bottle-feed increases the risk of aspiration and otitis media. It is recommended to feed infants in an upright position to minimize these risks.
Option B: Giving prescribed amoxicillin (Amoxil) on an empty stomach can lead to gastrointestinal discomfort and decreased absorption of the medication. Amoxicillin should be administered with food to enhance tolerance and effectiveness.
Option C: Cleaning the inside of the ear canals with cotton swabs can push wax deeper and potentially damage the ear canal or tympanic membrane. It is advised to avoid inserting objects into the ear canal.
Takeaways: Effective management of otitis media includes prioritizing avoidance of contact with individuals who have upper respiratory infections to prevent complications and recurrent episodes, which requires [patient education on infection prevention](https://...) as part of the care plan.
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ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 5 of 109
Which of the following patients should the nurse monitors because of increased risk for surgical complications?
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Option B: Monitoring the patient who is 5'3" and weighs 180 lbs is crucial due to the increased risk of surgical complications associated with obesity. Obesity can lead to higher rates of wound infections, delayed healing, and complications during anesthesia, necessitating closer observation and management during the perioperative period.
Option A: A 25-year-old with appendicitis typically does not present a significantly increased risk for surgical complications compared to other demographics, as appendectomy is a common procedure with generally low complication rates in this age group.
Option C: A 12-year-old with a fractured knee is generally at lower risk for surgical complications, as pediatric patients often have better physiological reserves and healing capabilities compared to adults or those with obesity.
Option D: A 17-year-old with gallstones may require surgery, but this age group typically does not have the same risk factors for complications as an obese patient. The surgical risks are more related to the specific condition rather than age alone.
Takeaways: Understanding the increased risk for surgical complications in patients with obesity is essential for effective nursing care, as it requires prioritizing [monitoring and management strategies](https://...) to mitigate potential postoperative issues.
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Question 6 of 109
Clay is an 8-year-old boy diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following shows that he is strictly following the directed therapeutic regimen?
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Option C: Normal weight for age indicates that Clay is adhering to the therapeutic regimen for heart failure, as maintaining a healthy weight is crucial for managing the condition and preventing further complications. This reflects effective management of fluid status and nutritional needs, which are essential in pediatric heart failure care.
Option A: Daily use of an antibiotic does not demonstrate adherence to a heart failure regimen unless there is a concurrent infection, which is not specified. Antibiotics are not a standard treatment for heart failure management.
Option B: A pulse rate less than 50 beats/minute suggests bradycardia, which can be a sign of inadequate cardiac output or medication side effects, indicating potential non-adherence or complications rather than successful management of heart failure.
Option D: An elevation in red blood cell (RBC) count may indicate dehydration or other underlying issues but does not directly correlate with adherence to a heart failure regimen. It does not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment plan.
Takeaways: Maintaining a [normal weight for age](https://...) is essential in pediatric heart failure management, as it indicates effective adherence to the therapeutic regimen and helps prevent complications.
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Question 7 of 109
A healthy, stable, preterm newborn will soon be discharged. The nurse should recommend which position for sleep?
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Rationale
Option B: Supine positioning is the recommended sleep position for healthy, stable, preterm newborns to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position promotes optimal airway management and decreases the likelihood of rebreathing exhaled carbon dioxide, ensuring better oxygenation during sleep.
Option A: Prone positioning increases the risk of SIDS and is not recommended for infants during sleep. This position can lead to airway obstruction and inadequate ventilation.
Option C: Side lying is not a safe sleep position for infants as it can lead to rolling onto the stomach, which poses a risk for SIDS. The supine position is preferred to maintain safety.
Option D: Position of comfort does not provide specific guidance for safe sleep practices. It is essential to adhere to established recommendations, such as the supine position, to ensure the infant's safety during sleep.
Takeaways: The supine position is crucial for reducing the risk of [airway obstruction and ventilation](https://...) issues in preterm newborns, making it the safest choice for sleep positioning.
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Question 8 of 109
A woman delivers a 3,250 g neonate at 42 weeks' gestation. Which physical finding is expected during an examination if this neonate?
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Question 9 of 109
An adult is diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following nursing diagnosis?
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Question 10 of 109
In JRA, the autoimmune reaction primarily occurs in the:
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Question 11 of 109
The physical manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome include:
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Option C: microcephaly, short philtrum, and intrauterine growth restriction accurately describes the physical manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). These features are characteristic of the syndrome, resulting from prenatal alcohol exposure and leading to developmental delays and facial dysmorphisms.
Option A: abnormal facial tissue, cleft lip, and cleft palate are not specific to fetal alcohol syndrome and can occur due to various genetic and environmental factors unrelated to alcohol exposure.
Option B: hepatomegaly, hypotonia, and microphthalmia are not typical manifestations of fetal alcohol syndrome. While some may be seen in other conditions, they do not define FAS.
Option D: hyperbilirubinemia, jaundice, and failure to thrive are common in many neonatal conditions but are not specific to fetal alcohol syndrome and do not represent the characteristic features of FAS.
Takeaways: The defining features of fetal alcohol syndrome include microcephaly, a short philtrum, and intrauterine growth restriction, which are critical for diagnosis and management; understanding these manifestations is essential for early intervention and support in affected individuals.
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Question 12 of 109
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
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Option B: Consider the client to be radioactive for 10 days after implant removal. Following the removal of a sealed radiation implant, the client may still emit radiation for a period of time, typically up to 10 days, necessitating precautions to protect others from exposure during this time.
Option A: Consider the client's urine, feces, and vomitus to be highly radioactive. While bodily fluids may contain trace amounts of radioactivity, they are not considered highly radioactive after the implant is removed, and standard precautions are usually sufficient.
Option C: Allow soiled linens to remain in the room until after the client is discharged. Soiled linens should be handled according to safety protocols and should not remain in the room, as they may pose a risk of radiation exposure to staff and visitors.
Option D: Maintain the client on complete bed rest with bathroom privileges only. While some restrictions may be necessary, complete bed rest is not universally required, and the client may have more mobility depending on their condition and treatment plan.
ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 13 of 109
Assume you are evaluating the specificity of the indirect fluorescence antibody test for rapid diagnosis of Campylobacter enteritis. The number of normal persons tested is 150 and the test is positive in 30 persons. The specificity of this test is
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Option D: The specificity of the test is calculated as the proportion of true negatives among all individuals without the disease. With 150 normal persons tested and 30 positive results, the number of true negatives is 150 - 30 = 120. Thus, specificity = (120 true negatives / 150 total normals) x 100 = 80%.
Option A: A specificity of 20% would imply that only 30 out of 150 individuals tested negative, which contradicts the data provided.
Option B: A specificity of 40% suggests that only 60 individuals tested negative, which does not align with the 120 true negatives calculated.
Option C: A specificity of 60% would indicate that 90 individuals tested negative, which is inconsistent with the actual number of true negatives found in the evaluation.
Takeaways: Specificity measures the ability of a test to correctly identify those without the disease, calculated as true negatives divided by the total number of individuals without the disease. This requires accurate calculation and understanding of test results, as seen in the evaluation of specificity in diagnostic tests.
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Question 14 of 109
Which of the following terms indicates that the patient has a hearing loss caused by aging?
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Option B: Presbycusis specifically refers to age-related hearing loss, characterized by a gradual decline in hearing ability, particularly for high-frequency sounds. This condition is common in older adults and is a significant aspect of geriatric health care.
Option A: Otoplasty involves surgical correction of the outer ear and does not relate to hearing loss or age.
Option C: Otalgia denotes ear pain, which can arise from various causes but does not indicate hearing loss or aging.
Option D: Tinnitus refers to the perception of noise or ringing in the ears, which may occur with hearing loss but does not specifically denote age-related hearing impairment.
Takeaways: Presbycusis is a common form of hearing loss in the elderly, highlighting the importance of understanding age-related changes in auditory function, which requires patient education on hearing loss management for effective care.
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Question 15 of 109
The nurse is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
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Option A: The purpose of performing breast self-examination is to discover cancerous lumps, which can be an early indicator of breast cancer. Early detection through self-examination can significantly improve treatment outcomes and survival rates for women.
Option B: Changes from previous self-examinations are important, but the primary goal is to identify cancerous lumps rather than merely noting changes.
Option C: Areas of thickness or fullness may indicate various conditions, but the focus of self-examination is specifically on detecting cancerous lumps.
Option D: Fibrocystic masses are common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. The primary aim of breast self-examination is to identify potentially cancerous lumps.
Takeaways: Breast self-examination is essential for early detection of cancerous lumps, which can lead to timely intervention and better outcomes; understanding this process requires education on breast health and self-examination techniques.
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Question 16 of 109
A 50-year-old African American patient is diagnosed with anemia. Where can the nurse assess for pallor?
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Rationale
Option D: Conjunctivae are a reliable site for assessing pallor in patients with anemia, as they reflect systemic changes in hemoglobin levels. In darker-skinned individuals, conjunctival pallor may be more evident than in the skin, making it a critical area for evaluation.
Option A: The scalp is not a standard area for assessing pallor, as it is typically covered by hair, which can obscure any color changes.
Option B: The chest does not provide a clear assessment of pallor due to the presence of pigmentation and the thickness of the skin, which may mask underlying changes in blood volume or hemoglobin.
Option C: The axillae can show pallor but are not as reliable as the conjunctivae for systemic anemia assessment, as they may be affected by local conditions and pigmentation.
ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 17 of 109
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
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Option C: Cough is a well-documented side effect of enalapril maleate (Vasotec), an ACE inhibitor. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, which can lead to irritation of the respiratory tract and subsequent coughing in some patients.
Option A: Acne is not a commonly reported side effect of enalapril. This medication primarily affects the renin-angiotensin system and does not influence skin conditions like acne.
Option B: Diarrhea is not a typical side effect associated with enalapril. While gastrointestinal disturbances can occur, they are less common compared to other side effects like cough.
Option D: Heartburn is not a recognized side effect of enalapril. This medication does not typically cause gastrointestinal reflux or heartburn symptoms.
Takeaways: Cough is a significant side effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril, linked to bradykinin accumulation, which requires patient education regarding potential side effects for effective management.
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Question 18 of 109
Of the following, the WORST prognostic factor in pediatric osteosarcoma is
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Option B: Poor histologic response to treatment is the worst prognostic factor in pediatric osteosarcoma, as it indicates a lack of tumor cell sensitivity to chemotherapy, which correlates with a significantly lower survival rate. This factor directly impacts the effectiveness of treatment and overall outcomes for the patient.
Option A: A primary pelvic bone tumor is associated with a poorer prognosis, but it is not as detrimental as poor histologic response. While location affects treatment options, it does not directly reflect treatment efficacy.
Option C: Bony metastases at the time of diagnosis indicate advanced disease and are a serious concern, yet they are not as prognostically unfavorable as poor histologic response, which directly influences treatment outcomes.
Option D: Lung metastases at the time of diagnosis are significant and contribute to a worse prognosis; however, they are still not as critical as the histologic response, which serves as a direct measure of treatment effectiveness.
Takeaways: Understanding the prognostic factors in pediatric osteosarcoma is crucial, particularly the impact of histologic response to treatment, which requires early intervention and tailored therapeutic strategies to improve patient outcomes.
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Question 19 of 109
Katie is admitted to the intensive care unit of Nurseslabs Medical Center for diabetic ketoacidosis; which of the following is of primary importance when caring for the child?
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Option B: Evaluating the child for cardiac abnormalities is of primary importance in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac issues. Continuous monitoring of cardiac function is essential to prevent complications during treatment.
Option A: Giving I.V. NPH insulin in high doses is not standard practice in DKA management. Regular insulin is typically used for its rapid action and better control of blood glucose levels.
Option C: Limiting fluids to prevent aggravating cerebral edema is not appropriate. In DKA, adequate hydration is crucial to restore intravascular volume and prevent complications, including cerebral edema.
Option D: Monitoring and recording the child's vital signs for hypertension is important, but it is not the primary focus in DKA management. The emphasis should be on cardiac monitoring and electrolyte balance due to the potential for arrhythmias.
Takeaways: Continuous evaluation for cardiac abnormalities is critical in managing diabetic ketoacidosis due to the risk of electrolyte imbalances affecting heart function, necessitating careful monitoring of potassium levels and cardiac status throughout treatment.
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Question 20 of 109
You are meeting with parents of a 10-year-old child who recently develops acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Which of the following is LEAST likely to increase the risk of CNS relapse in children with ALL?
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Option A: First traumatic lumbar puncture (LP) does not significantly increase the risk of CNS relapse in children with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). While lumbar punctures are necessary for diagnosis and treatment, the trauma from a single LP is not a known risk factor for CNS relapse.
Option B: T-cell leukemia is associated with a higher risk of CNS involvement and relapse due to the aggressive nature of T-cell ALL, which often leads to more extramedullary disease.
Option C: Cranial nerve involvement at the time of diagnosis indicates a more advanced disease state and is a known risk factor for CNS relapse, as it suggests that the leukemia has already spread to the CNS.
Option D: The presence of lymphoblasts in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at any time during treatment is a significant indicator of CNS involvement and correlates with an increased risk of CNS relapse, as it reflects active disease in the CNS.
Takeaways: Understanding the risk factors for CNS relapse in ALL is crucial for effective management and treatment planning. Factors such as T-cell leukemia and lymphoblast presence in the CSF require close monitoring and intervention to mitigate risks associated with CNS involvement.
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Question 21 of 109
You would not find which of the following assessments in a patient with severe anemia?
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Option C: Cold sensitivity would not typically be found in a patient with severe anemia, as this condition primarily presents with symptoms related to decreased oxygen delivery, such as pallor, fatigue, and dyspnea. Cold sensitivity is more associated with other conditions, such as hypothyroidism or peripheral vascular disease.
Option A: Pallor is a common finding in severe anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygenation of tissues and a pale appearance.
Option B: Fatigue is a hallmark symptom of severe anemia, resulting from insufficient oxygen delivery to meet the body’s metabolic demands, causing overall weakness and tiredness.
Option D: Dyspnea only on exertion is often seen in severe anemia, as physical activity increases oxygen demand, which cannot be met due to the low hemoglobin levels.
Takeaways: Severe anemia typically presents with symptoms like pallor, fatigue, and exertional dyspnea, while cold sensitivity is not a characteristic symptom of this condition. Understanding these presentations is crucial for effective patient assessment and management, as it requires appropriate evaluation and treatment of anemia to address underlying causes.
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Question 22 of 109
When educating parents regarding known antecedent infections in acute glomerulonephritis, which of the following should the nurse cover?
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Rationale
Option B: Impetigo is a known antecedent infection that can lead to acute glomerulonephritis, particularly post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. It is caused by bacteria, typically Streptococcus or Staphylococcus, and can trigger an immune response that affects kidney function.
Option A: Scabies does not have a direct link to acute glomerulonephritis. It is a skin condition caused by a mite infestation, which does not typically lead to kidney complications.
Option C: Herpes simplex is primarily associated with mucosal infections and does not have a recognized connection to acute glomerulonephritis. Its pathophysiology does not involve the kidney in this context.
Option D: Varicella, while a viral infection, does not lead to acute glomerulonephritis. The complications of varicella are more related to skin infections and pneumonia rather than renal issues.
Takeaways: Understanding the relationship between infections and acute glomerulonephritis is crucial, as certain bacterial infections like impetigo can precede this condition.
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Question 23 of 109
The nurse is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data would the nurse expect to find?
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Option A: Hyperkalemia is a common laboratory finding in acute addisonian crisis due to the adrenal insufficiency leading to decreased aldosterone production, which normally promotes potassium excretion. This results in elevated serum potassium levels, a critical indicator of the crisis.
Option B: Hypernatremia would not be expected; instead, hyponatremia is more common due to the loss of aldosterone, which leads to sodium retention issues.
Option C: Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN) does not typically occur in this condition. In fact, BUN may be elevated due to dehydration or renal impairment associated with the crisis.
Option D: Hyperglycemia is not characteristic of an addisonian crisis. Instead, hypoglycemia may occur due to insufficient cortisol levels, which are necessary for gluconeogenesis.
Takeaways: In acute addisonian crisis, hyperkalemia results from decreased aldosterone secretion, leading to impaired potassium excretion. Understanding these electrolyte imbalances is crucial for effective management and requires patient education on adrenal insufficiency to ensure proper treatment and monitoring.
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ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 24 of 109
When a child has chronic renal failure, the progressive deterioration produces a variety of clinical and biochemical disturbances that eventually are manifested in the clinical syndrome known as:
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Option A: Uremia is the clinical syndrome that arises from chronic renal failure, characterized by the accumulation of waste products in the blood due to the kidneys' inability to excrete them effectively. This condition leads to various biochemical disturbances and systemic symptoms, reflecting the severity of renal impairment.
Option B: Oliguria refers to a decreased urine output, which can occur in acute or chronic renal failure but does not encompass the broader clinical syndrome associated with the accumulation of toxins in the body.
Option C: Proteinuria indicates the presence of excess protein in the urine, often a sign of kidney damage, but it does not represent the comprehensive clinical syndrome resulting from chronic renal failure.
Option D: Pyelonephritis is a specific type of kidney infection that can cause renal impairment but is not a syndrome resulting from chronic renal failure itself.
ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 25 of 109
Nurse Christine is planning a client education program for sickle cell disease (SCD) in children; which of the following interventions would be included in the care plan?
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Option A: Health teaching to help reduce sickling crises is a fundamental intervention in managing sickle cell disease (SCD). Educating families about hydration, avoiding extreme temperatures, and recognizing early signs of a crisis can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of sickling episodes.
Option B: Avoidance of the use of opioids contradicts standard pain management practices for SCD. Opioids are often necessary for managing severe pain during sickle cell crises, and their use should not be avoided.
Option C: Administration of an anticoagulant to prevent sickling is not a standard intervention. Anticoagulants do not address the underlying pathophysiology of sickle cell disease and are not used to prevent sickling crises.
Option D: Observation of the imposed fluid restriction does not align with the management of SCD. Adequate hydration is crucial in preventing sickling crises, and fluid restrictions can exacerbate the condition.
Takeaways: Effective management of sickle cell disease requires comprehensive patient education to reduce sickling crises, emphasizing hydration and crisis recognition, which necessitates patient education on sickle cell disease management.
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Question 26 of 109
A nurse is assessing a patient admitted for an asthma exacerbation. Which breath sounds does the nurse expect to assess?
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Option C: Wheezes are high-pitched, musical sounds produced by narrowed airways, commonly associated with asthma exacerbations due to bronchoconstriction and inflammation. These sounds are typically heard during expiration and indicate airflow obstruction, making them a key finding in asthma assessments.
Option A: Rubs are pleural friction sounds caused by inflammation of the pleura, not typically associated with asthma. They occur when the pleural surfaces rub together, often indicating pleuritis or other lung conditions.
Option B: Rattles are not a recognized medical term for breath sounds. The term may refer to coarse or low-pitched sounds, which are not characteristic of asthma. Proper terminology is essential for accurate clinical assessment.
Option D: Crackles are discontinuous sounds that can indicate fluid in the lungs or atelectasis, but they are not specific to asthma exacerbations. They are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure.
Takeaways: Wheezes are a hallmark of asthma exacerbations, indicating airway obstruction due to bronchoconstriction and inflammation. Proper assessment of breath sounds is crucial for effective management of respiratory conditions, including asthma.
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Question 27 of 109
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
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Question 28 of 109
What is the best method to obtain a urine sample in an 8-month-old being evaluated for a UTI?
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Question 29 of 109
What is the best initial action for the nurse to take?
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Question 30 of 109
Antibodies are made of which of the following types of substances?
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Question 31 of 109
The nurse is conducting an assessment on a school-age child with urosepsis. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
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Question 32 of 109
To reduce symptoms of early morning stiffness in a ptient who has rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse can encourage the patient to:
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Question 33 of 109
A client is receiving a blood transfusion. If this client experiences an acute hemolytic reaction, which nursing intervention is the most important?
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Question 34 of 109
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of a new preoperative patient who is nil by mouth (NPO). The nurse notes that the patient has been on long-term oral steroid therapy. The nurse understands that which of the following is the reason that steroids cannot be abruptly stopped?
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Question 35 of 109
A 3-month-old infant, born at 38 weeks of gestation, will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands, but she will not voluntarily grasp it. How should the nurse interpret this action?
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Question 36 of 109
For a client with polycythemia vera, how can the nurse help decrease the risk for thrombus formation?
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Question 37 of 109
The nurse assesses the motor functions during a neurologic examination of a client. Which of the ff steps will help the nurse perform the examination effectively? Choose all that apply
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Question 38 of 109
A nurse is doing an assessment on a newborn. Which is characteristic of a newborn's vision at birth and an expected finding during the assessment?
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Question 39 of 109
What size of suction catheter would Wilma use for James, who is 6 feet 5 inches in height and weighing approximately 145 lbs?
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Question 40 of 109
A 12-year-old male has short stature because of a constitutional growth delay. What should the nurse be the most concerned about?
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Question 41 of 109
A patient returns from surgery ff. a TURP with a three-way Foley catheter and continuous bladder irrigation. Postoperative orders include Meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM q3h as needed for pain, belladonna and opium (B&O) suppository q4h as needed, and strict I&O. the patient complains of painful bladder spasms, and the nurse observes blood-tinged urine on the sheets. Which action should the nurse take?
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Question 42 of 109
A 2-year-old child presents with a peeling, erythematous rash on the hands and feet. The mother reports that he has become ill tempered and refuses to walk about, preferring to lie in bed. Physical examination reveals an irritable, pale child with photophobia. Temperature is 98.5°F, heart rate is 80/minute, and respiratory rate is 23/minute. Tremor of the tongue is evident. Further history and follow-up evaluation reveal that the child's elder brothers have been playing with liquid mercury. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
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Question 43 of 109
In terms of gross motor development, which should the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? (Select all that apply.)
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Question 44 of 109
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
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Question 45 of 109
Acyclovir (Zovirax) is given to children with chickenpox to:
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Question 46 of 109
Before, during and after seizure. The nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position?
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Question 47 of 109
all the following are major signs of DM except :
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Question 48 of 109
A nurse is planning a class on accident prevention for parents of toddlers. Which safety topic is the priority for this class?
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Question 49 of 109
Which is most important in the immediate care of the newborn?
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Question 50 of 109
A client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, "Which is the most common type of cancer in women?" The nurse replies that it's breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
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Question 51 of 109
Samantha, age 5 years, tells the nurse that she "needs a Band-Aid" where she had an injection. Which is the best nursing action?
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Question 52 of 109
The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HSV). The discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual;
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Question 53 of 109
A client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) comes to the emergency department with severe back pain. She reports that she first felt pain after manually opening her garage door and that she is taking prednisone daily. When adverse effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy is most likely responsible for the pain?
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Question 54 of 109
What clinical manifestation is included in toxic shock syndrome?
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Question 55 of 109
Which white blood cells are involved in releasing histamine during an allergic reaction?
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Question 56 of 109
Which of the following BP changes alerts the nurse to increasing ICP, and should be reported immediately?
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ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 57 of 109
a definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is based on which diagnostic result
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Question 58 of 109
During the physical assessment, the nurse recalls that the areas most frequently affected by multiple sclerosis are the:
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Question 59 of 109
An 18-year-old with a groin rash and itching is worried about having an STD and does not want his parents to know. What should the nurse say?
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Question 60 of 109
Which of the following statements would be the nurse's response to a famiiy member asking questions about a client's transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
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Question 61 of 109
Mrs. Tan is scheduled to undergo percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). Which of the following is the priority goal for her immediately after the procedure?
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Question 62 of 109
Lily , age 5, with an intelligence quotient of 65 is admitted to the hospital for evaluation. When planning care, the nurse should keep in mind that this child is:
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Question 63 of 109
A nurse is conducting education classes for parents of infants. The nurse plans to discuss sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which risk factors should the nurse include as increasing an infant's risk of a sudden infant death syndrome incident? (Select all that apply.)
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Question 64 of 109
Which of the ff symptoms is associated with AIDS related distal sensory polyneuropathy (DSP)?
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Question 65 of 109
Choose the condition that exhibits blood values with a low pH and a high PCO :
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Question 66 of 109
Which explanation regarding cardiac catheterization is appropriate for a preschool child?
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Question 67 of 109
Childhood primary brain stem tumors are a heterogeneous group of tumors; the outcome usually depends on the tumor location. Which tumor, depending on the site of tumor, carries the worst prognosis?
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Question 68 of 109
The nurse is teaching nursing students about childhood skin lesions. Which is an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid?
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Question 69 of 109
In planning for the admission of this infant, the nurse's highest priority should be to:
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Question 70 of 109
The LEAST helpful advice for a 10-month-old baby refusing spoon feeding is
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Question 71 of 109
Which of the following procedures does the nurse understand is used to correct otosclerosis?
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Question 72 of 109
Which of the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?
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ATI RN · Burns Pediatric Primary Care 7th Edition Test Bank
Question 73 of 109
A 10-month-old child can do all the following EXCEPT
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Question 74 of 109
The nurse is preparing an intravenous infusion of phenytoin (Dilantin) as prescribed by the physician for the client with seizures. Which of the following solutions will the nurse plan to use to dilute this medication?
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Question 75 of 109
What is the most important postoperative instruction the nurse must give a client who has just returned from the operating room after receiving a subarachnoid block?
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Question 76 of 109
20-year old Mr. Ang fell off from his horse, and sustained a lft hip fracture. Buck's extension traction is applied. The following statements are true about Buck's extension traction except:
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Question 77 of 109
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform to monitor for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in a client with a neurologic deficit?
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Question 78 of 109
Which should the nurse anticipate in the newborn whose mother used cocaine during pregnancy?
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Question 79 of 109
What is an important consideration for the nurse who is communicating with a very young child?
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Question 80 of 109
The nurse should include which of the following in preprocedure teaching for a patient scheduled for carotid angiography?
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Question 81 of 109
a woman who is pregnant is undergoing an amniocentesis. during the test, elevated levels of AFP are found. this indicate to which of the following conditions :
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Question 82 of 109
A 5 years old boy presents with joint swelling after minor trauma, mother gives history of prolonged bleeding from circumcision site. His platelets count is 170000, PT is 10 seconds and APTT is 60 seconds. What is most likely the diagnosis?
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Question 83 of 109
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
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Question 84 of 109
A client is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective individual coping related to diabetes mellitus?
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Question 85 of 109
A nurse is directed to administer a hypotonic intravenous solution. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
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Question 86 of 109
What might you conclude if you notice a wide perineum and unequal gluteal and thigh folds when assessing a newborn?
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Question 87 of 109
The clue to need a help for a child who does not respond to his or her name is by age of
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Question 88 of 109
You are meeting parents of a 1.5-year-old boy who has suboptimal growth. He has been delivered prematurely at the gestational age of 32 weeks. Examination reveals a healthy child with growth parameters below normal for age. You reassure the parents that their child will catch his normal growth with time. Of the following, the growth parameter that should be corrected at this age is
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Question 89 of 109
Hepatoblastoma is a neoplasm of undifferentiated precursors of hepatocytes. It is of different histological classification; which type predict the MOST favorable outcome?
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Question 90 of 109
Which of the ff nursing interventions is taken as a precautionary measure if shock develops when a client with a spinal cord injury is hospitalized?
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Question 91 of 109
A patient has orders to receive 1 L (1000 mL) of 5% dextrose and lactated Ringer's solution to be infused over 8 hours. How many millilitres will be infused per hour?
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Question 92 of 109
Which is an important consideration when the nurse is discussing enuresis with the parents of a young child?
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Question 93 of 109
Which should the nurse consider when preparing a school-age child and the family for heart surgery?
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Question 94 of 109
Which tool measures body fat most accurately?
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Question 95 of 109
You are evaluating a 6-mo-old girl with a firm right suprarenal mass. Histologically, there is no bony involvement, 10% bone marrow involvement, subcutaneous nodules involvement, and massive abdominal mass. The N-myc oncogene is not amplified. According to the international neuroblastoma staging system, the infant is stratified as
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Question 96 of 109
Children with anterior mediastinal masses are at serious risk for airway compromise and vascular obstruction. Which of the following is NOT an indication for CT scan in these cases?
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Question 97 of 109
The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing which substances?
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Question 98 of 109
Which of the ff is the best dietary advice to maximize the immune function in healthy people?
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Question 99 of 109
A client diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her condition and how to control it?
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Question 100 of 109
Which patient should be monitored most closely for dehydration?
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Question 101 of 109
When a patient participates in a research study, the pediatric nurse's primary concern is to ensure that the:
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Question 102 of 109
A nurse is preparing to administer an oral iron supplement to a hospitalized infant. Which should not be given simultaneously with the iron supplement?
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Question 103 of 109
A young couple of a 2-month-old baby girl with excessive crying seeks medical advice. The LEAST important advice is to
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Question 104 of 109
A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant. What should the nurse recommend the infant be given?
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Question 105 of 109
A client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
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Question 106 of 109
A healthy 20-day-old male examination reveals a palpable liver margin below the right costal margin; lab findings: white blood count, 18700/mm3; hemoglobin, 8.8 g/dl; blast cells, 10%; the BEST approach for the management is consistent with acute myeloproliferative disorder
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Question 107 of 109
Hemolytic disease is suspected in a mother's second newborn. Which factor is important in understanding how this could develop?
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Question 108 of 109
Which virus causes genital warts?
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Question 109 of 109
A client with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findings are characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia?
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