You are evaluating a 6-year-old male child with Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH); the parents state that the most common site of bone involvement is
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Option A: The most common site of bone involvement in Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) is the skull, where lesions often present as lytic bone lesions. This is significant in pediatric patients as it can lead to complications such as skull deformities or neurological issues if not monitored and treated appropriately.
Option B: While the vertebra can be involved in LCH, it is not the most common site. Vertebral lesions may occur but are less frequent compared to skull involvement.
Option C: The mandible can be affected in LCH, particularly in cases of solitary bone lesions, but it does not represent the most common site of bone involvement in this condition.
Option D: The pelvis is another potential site for LCH lesions; however, it is not the primary location for bone involvement, which predominantly occurs in the skull.
Takeaways: Understanding that the most common site of bone involvement in LCH is the skull is crucial for early diagnosis and management, especially since it can lead to complications such as [neurological issues](https://...) if not addressed promptly.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 2 of 73
When caring for an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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Option D: Suction the nasopharynx as needed is essential in managing an infant with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) to clear secretions and maintain airway patency. This action helps alleviate respiratory distress and facilitates better oxygenation, which is critical in this population due to their smaller airways and susceptibility to obstruction from mucus buildup.
Option A: Administering antibiotics IM once per day does not address RSV, as it is a viral infection and antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. This approach could lead to unnecessary medication use and potential side effects.
Option B: Initiating droplet precautions is not sufficient for RSV, which primarily spreads through contact and can also be aerosolized in certain situations. Contact precautions are more appropriate to prevent the spread of the virus.
Option C: Placing the infant in a negative-pressure isolation room is not necessary for RSV management. This type of isolation is typically reserved for airborne infections, while RSV requires contact precautions to limit transmission.
Takeaways: Effective management of RSV in infants prioritizes airway clearance through suctioning to prevent [airway obstruction and ventilation](https://...) issues, while recognizing that RSV is viral and does not require antibiotics or airborne isolation measures.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 3 of 73
A patient with Parkinson's disease who takes levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) comes to the clinic for a semi-annual physical examination. Which question is the most important for that nurse to ask?
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Rationale
Option B: Are you having vivid dreams or hallucinations? This question is crucial for patients on levodopa/carbidopa, as these medications can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including hallucinations and vivid dreams. Monitoring for these symptoms is essential to manage treatment effectively and ensure patient safety.
Option A: Have you noticed any swelling in your feet? While swelling can indicate fluid retention or other issues, it is not as directly related to the side effects of levodopa/carbidopa as neuropsychiatric symptoms.
Option C: Have you noticed any changes in your stool? Changes in stool may be relevant for gastrointestinal side effects, but they are less critical than monitoring for hallucinations or vivid dreams in this context.
Option D: Have you had your flu vaccine? Although vaccination is important for overall health, it does not address the immediate concerns related to the side effects of Parkinson's disease treatment.
Takeaways: Monitoring for [neuropsychiatric symptoms in patients on levodopa/carbidopa](https://...) is essential, as these can significantly impact treatment adherence and quality of life.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 4 of 73
When teaching a parent of a child with hemophilia, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
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Option B: Avoid administering NSAIDs is a critical instruction for parents of children with hemophilia, as these medications can increase the risk of bleeding due to their anticoagulant effects. Instead, acetaminophen is recommended for pain relief, ensuring safety in managing symptoms without exacerbating bleeding risks.
Option A: Administering aspirin for pain is contraindicated in hemophilia because aspirin can inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding tendencies, posing significant risks to the child’s health.
Option C: Restricting physical activities is not a comprehensive approach; instead, children with hemophilia should engage in safe, supervised activities that promote strength and coordination while minimizing injury risk, rather than complete restriction.
Option D: Applying heat to joints may not be appropriate in the context of hemophilia, as it can exacerbate bleeding and swelling; cold therapy is typically preferred to manage pain and inflammation effectively.
Takeaways: Proper management of hemophilia requires avoiding NSAIDs to prevent increased bleeding risk while encouraging safe physical activity and using appropriate pain relief methods, emphasizing the need for [careful medication management](https://...) in these patients.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 5 of 73
Which physical assessment technique should be omitted when caring for a 2-year-old child diagnosed with Wilms' tumor?
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Option B: Omitting palpation of the abdomen is crucial when caring for a child with Wilms' tumor due to the risk of tumor rupture and subsequent hemorrhage. This assessment technique can cause significant harm and should be avoided to ensure patient safety.
Option A: Performing range-of-motion exercises on lower extremities is appropriate as it helps maintain mobility and prevent contractures, which is essential for overall physical health in a pediatric patient.
Option C: Assessing for bowel sounds is a standard practice in pediatric assessments and provides important information regarding gastrointestinal function, which is relevant even in the context of Wilms' tumor.
Option D: Percussing ankle and knee reflexes is a safe and non-invasive technique that can provide valuable neurological information without posing a risk to the child’s condition.
Takeaways: Omitting palpation of the abdomen is critical in managing Wilms' tumor due to the potential for tumor rupture, highlighting the importance of safe assessment practices in pediatric care, especially for [abdominal tumors](https://...) prior to any physical examination.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 6 of 73
A patient develops hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after eating peanuts. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
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Option B: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, which presents with symptoms such as hypotension, laryngeal edema, and bronchospasm after exposure to allergens like peanuts. It acts quickly to reverse these life-threatening symptoms by causing vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and reducing edema, making it essential in emergency situations.
Option A: Promethazine is an antihistamine that can help with allergic reactions but does not address the acute symptoms of anaphylaxis effectively and may even cause respiratory depression in severe cases.
Option C: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can alleviate mild allergic symptoms but is not suitable for treating anaphylaxis due to its slower onset of action and inability to counteract severe respiratory distress and hypotension.
Option D: Hydroxyzine, while an antihistamine, is not indicated for anaphylaxis management and does not provide the rapid response needed to treat life-threatening symptoms associated with this condition.
Takeaways: Epinephrine is the critical medication for managing anaphylaxis, as it quickly addresses symptoms like hypotension and bronchospasm, highlighting the priority for [airway obstruction and ventilation](https://...) in such emergencies.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 7 of 73
When a patient is taking glucocorticoids and digoxin, which electrolyte should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
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Rationale
Option D: Monitoring potassium is essential when a patient is taking glucocorticoids and digoxin due to the risk of hypokalemia. Glucocorticoids can cause potassium loss, which may lead to digoxin toxicity, as low potassium levels increase digoxin's effects on the heart. Therefore, prioritizing potassium levels is crucial for patient safety.
Option A: Calcium does not have a direct interaction with glucocorticoids and digoxin that would necessitate priority monitoring. While calcium levels are important, they are not the primary concern in this context.
Option B: Magnesium levels are also important but are not as directly impacted by glucocorticoids and digoxin as potassium levels. Thus, magnesium does not require prioritization in this scenario.
Option C: Sodium monitoring is generally less critical in the context of glucocorticoid and digoxin therapy compared to potassium. Sodium levels are not significantly affected by these medications in a way that would pose immediate risks.
Takeaways: Monitoring potassium is a priority for patients on glucocorticoids and digoxin due to the risk of hypokalemia leading to toxicity; understanding this interaction is vital for [safe medication management](https://...) in clinical practice.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 8 of 73
The healthcare provider discussed strategies with a parent to prevent a recurrence of urinary tract infection in the child. Which statement made by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
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Rationale
Option C: It is acceptable to take frequent bubble baths. Frequent bubble baths can irritate the urethra and increase the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of proper hygiene practices that help prevent UTIs.
Option A: My daughter should wash and wipe the perineal area from front to back. This is a correct practice as it helps prevent the introduction of bacteria from the rectal area to the urethra, reducing UTI risk.
Option B: I am only going to have my daughter wear cotton underwear. Cotton underwear is breathable and helps keep the genital area dry, which is beneficial in preventing UTIs, making this statement accurate.
Option D: She needs to drink lots of fluids and void frequently. Adequate fluid intake and regular voiding help flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, which is essential for UTI prevention, confirming this statement as correct.
Takeaways: Proper hygiene practices, such as avoiding bubble baths and ensuring adequate fluid intake, are crucial for preventing urinary tract infections in children. For more information on UTI prevention, refer to this resource.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 9 of 73
Which law provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who are in need of comprehensive early intervention services?
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Rationale
Option D: IDEA- Part C provides for infants and toddlers aged 0-2 who require comprehensive early intervention services. This part of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) specifically addresses the needs of this age group, ensuring access to necessary developmental support and services.
Option A: IDEA- Part B pertains to services for children aged 3-21, focusing on special education and related services, thus not applicable to infants and toddlers.
Option B: IDEA- Part A outlines the general provisions and definitions of the IDEA but does not specifically address early intervention services for infants and toddlers.
Option C: IFSP stands for Individualized Family Service Plan, which is a plan developed for infants and toddlers receiving early intervention services, but it does not represent the law providing those services.
Takeaways: IDEA- Part C specifically mandates early intervention services for infants and toddlers aged 0-2, ensuring developmental support for those in need, which requires understanding the framework of early intervention services to effectively assist families and children.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 10 of 73
When preparing an adolescent for a lumbar puncture, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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Rationale
Option B: Apply topical analgesic cream to the site one hour prior to the procedure. This action is essential for minimizing discomfort during the lumbar puncture, as it helps to numb the skin at the puncture site, making the procedure more tolerable for the adolescent.
Option A: Place a cardiac monitor on the adolescent prior to the procedure. While monitoring may be necessary in certain clinical situations, it is not a standard requirement for a lumbar puncture unless there are specific cardiac concerns.
Option C: Keep the adolescent in a semi-Fowler's position for 4 hours following the procedure. Post-procedure positioning typically involves lying flat to reduce the risk of headache, rather than maintaining a semi-Fowler's position for an extended period.
Option D: Restrict fluids for 2 hours following the procedure. Adequate hydration is encouraged after a lumbar puncture to help prevent post-lumbar puncture headache and promote recovery, making fluid restriction inappropriate.
Takeaways: Proper preparation for a lumbar puncture includes applying a topical analgesic to minimize pain, as effective pain management is crucial for patient comfort and cooperation during procedures. For more details on this procedure, see lumbar puncture guidelines.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 11 of 73
At a 6-month well-child checkup, a male infant is weighed. The mother asks if his weight is normal. The nurse's best response is:
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Rationale
Option C: At 6 months, his weight should be approximately twice his birth weight. This aligns with the growth expectations for infants, where a healthy infant typically doubles their birth weight by 4 to 6 months of age, indicating appropriate growth and development.
Option A: At 6 months, his weight should be approximately three times his birth weight. This statement is inaccurate, as infants usually reach three times their birth weight by 12 months, not 6 months.
Option B: Each child grows at their own pace. While individual growth rates can vary, this response does not provide the specific information the mother is seeking regarding expected weight at 6 months.
Option D: At 6 months, a child should weigh about 10 lb more than at birth. This is misleading; while some infants may gain around 10 lbs by 6 months, the expectation is that they should weigh approximately double their birth weight, which may not equate to a 10 lb increase for all infants.
Takeaways: At 6 months, a healthy infant typically weighs about twice their birth weight, reflecting normal growth patterns and development milestones. Monitoring growth is essential for assessing overall health, and resources like CDC growth charts provide valuable guidelines for pediatric growth assessment.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 12 of 73
At what age range is it important to feed a baby in a more upright position and no longer in sidelying?
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Rationale
Option B: Feeding a baby in a more upright position is essential between 4-6 months as this age marks the transition to solid foods, which can help prevent aspiration and promote better swallowing mechanics.
Option A: Feeding in a more upright position is not primarily emphasized during 6-12 months, as babies are typically more adept at feeding themselves and managing food textures by this age.
Option C: By 12-18 months, children are generally capable of self-feeding and may not require the same level of positioning support as younger infants.
Option D: Birth to 3 months is a period where sidelying can be appropriate for feeding, especially for newborns who are still developing their feeding skills and reflexes.
Takeaways: Proper positioning during feeding, particularly between 4-6 months, is crucial to prevent aspiration and facilitate safe swallowing as infants transition to solid foods, which requires appropriate feeding techniques to ensure safety.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 13 of 73
Coadministration of botulinum toxin (BTX) and one of the following drugs should be performed with caution as the effect of the toxin may be potentiated
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Rationale
Option A: Coadministration of botulinum toxin (BTX) and aminoglycosides should be performed with caution, as aminoglycosides can potentiate the neuromuscular blocking effects of BTX, leading to increased risk of respiratory depression and muscle weakness. This interaction necessitates careful monitoring of the patient’s neuromuscular function.
Option B: Cephalosporins do not have a known potentiating effect on botulinum toxin. They primarily act on bacterial cell walls and do not interfere with neuromuscular transmission.
Option C: Penicillins are not associated with any significant interaction with botulinum toxin. Their mechanism of action does not involve neuromuscular pathways, thus posing no risk of potentiation.
Option D: Macrolides do not enhance the effects of botulinum toxin. They work by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis and do not impact neuromuscular transmission.
Takeaways: Coadministration of botulinum toxin with aminoglycosides requires caution due to the potential for enhanced neuromuscular blockade, necessitating careful monitoring of muscle function and respiratory status. Understanding these interactions is crucial for safe patient management, especially in procedures involving botulinum toxin administration and neuromuscular agents.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 14 of 73
Which child does not need a urinalysis to evaluate for a UTI?
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Rationale
Option C: An 8-year-old male with a history of ureteral reimplantation but no current symptoms does not require a urinalysis to evaluate for a UTI. In the absence of symptoms, routine screening is not indicated, as the likelihood of a UTI is low without clinical signs.
Option A: A 4-month-old female with fussiness, poor appetite, T 100.8°F, HR 120 presents with potential signs of infection. In infants, any signs of illness warrant a urinalysis to rule out UTI.
Option B: A 4-year-old female with dysuria and frequent urination is exhibiting classic symptoms of a UTI. A urinalysis is essential to confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment.
Option D: A 12-year-old female with lower right back pain and T 101.5°F shows signs of possible infection or renal involvement. A urinalysis is necessary to evaluate for UTI or other complications.
Takeaways: Evaluating for a UTI in children requires clinical signs or symptoms; asymptomatic children, like the one in Option C, do not need a urinalysis. Understanding these guidelines helps in appropriate management and reduces unnecessary testing, as outlined in pediatric UTI management protocols.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 15 of 73
When planning care for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
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Rationale
Option D: Risk for Aspiration is the priority nursing diagnosis for a newborn with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula due to the anatomical abnormalities that create a direct pathway between the esophagus and trachea, increasing the risk of aspiration during feeding. This condition necessitates immediate intervention to prevent respiratory complications.
Option A: Ineffective Tissue Perfusion does not directly address the immediate risks associated with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula, which primarily involve airway protection and feeding safety.
Option B: Ineffective Infant Feeding Pattern, while relevant, is secondary to the more critical concern of aspiration risk. Ensuring safe feeding practices is important but does not take precedence over airway protection.
Option C: Acute Pain may be a concern in the management of the newborn, but it is not the priority diagnosis when the risk of aspiration poses an immediate threat to the infant's airway and respiratory status.
Takeaways: Prioritizing nursing diagnoses in newborns with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula focuses on airway protection due to the high risk for aspiration, which requires careful monitoring and intervention to ensure safety during feeding.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 16 of 73
In the morning, a healthcare professional receives change-of-shift report on four pediatric clients, each of whom has some form of fluid-volume excess. Which of the children should the healthcare professional see first?
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Rationale
Option A: The child with tachypnea and pulmonary congestion should be seen first due to the immediate risk of respiratory distress. Tachypnea indicates increased work of breathing, and pulmonary congestion can lead to compromised gas exchange and potential respiratory failure, necessitating urgent assessment and intervention.
Option B: The child with hepatomegaly and normal respiratory rate does not present with acute respiratory distress. While hepatomegaly is concerning, it does not require immediate attention compared to respiratory symptoms.
Option C: The child with dependent and sacral edema and regular pulse is stable and does not exhibit signs of respiratory compromise. This condition, while significant, is less urgent than respiratory issues.
Option D: The child with periorbital edema and normal respiratory rate also does not show signs of respiratory distress. Although edema can indicate fluid overload, it is not as critical as the symptoms presented in Option A.
Takeaways: Prioritizing patients with respiratory distress is crucial in pediatric care, as conditions like tachypnea and pulmonary congestion can rapidly deteriorate. Immediate assessment and intervention are essential for managing fluid-volume excess and preventing complications, as outlined in pediatric fluid management guidelines.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 17 of 73
A nurse is caring for a child who has a new diagnosis of osteomyelitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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Rationale
Option C: Monitor the child's weight daily. Regular weight monitoring is essential in children with osteomyelitis to assess nutritional status and the effectiveness of treatment, as prolonged illness can lead to weight loss and malnutrition. This action supports overall health and recovery.
Option A: Administer aspirin for pain. Aspirin is contraindicated in children due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, particularly in the presence of viral infections. Alternative analgesics, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, should be used instead.
Option B: Apply ice to the affected area. While ice can reduce swelling, it may not be appropriate for osteomyelitis, which often requires warmth and rest to promote healing. Ice application could potentially hinder blood flow to the area.
Option D: Limit the child's activity. Although some activity restriction may be necessary, complete limitation can lead to muscle atrophy and decreased mobility. A balanced approach that allows for safe movement while managing pain is essential.
Takeaways: Monitoring a child's weight daily is crucial in managing osteomyelitis, as it helps assess nutritional status and treatment efficacy, requiring appropriate nursing interventions and monitoring to support recovery.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 18 of 73
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an intravenous catheter for a 7-year-old child. Which of the following actions should the professional take?
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Rationale
Option A: Apply an anesthetic cream to the insertion site 1 hr before the procedure. This action helps to minimize pain and anxiety for the child during the intravenous catheter insertion, making the procedure more tolerable and improving the overall experience for both the child and the healthcare provider.
Option B: Using a 16-gauge needle for the insertion is inappropriate for a pediatric patient. Typically, smaller gauge needles, such as 22 or 24 gauge, are used for children to reduce trauma and discomfort.
Option C: Inserting the catheter into a vein of the child's dominant hand may not be ideal. It is often better to use the non-dominant hand to avoid discomfort and interference with the child's activities post-procedure.
Option D: Choosing a site over the child's metacarpal veins is not the preferred site for intravenous access in children. The veins in the forearm or antecubital fossa are generally more suitable due to their size and accessibility.
Takeaways: Proper preparation for intravenous catheter insertion in children includes applying anesthetic cream to reduce pain and anxiety, as pediatric patients require careful consideration of needle gauge and site selection to ensure comfort and safety. For more information on pediatric IV insertion techniques, refer to this resource on pediatric intravenous therapy.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 19 of 73
The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an immunization to a four-year-old child. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
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Rationale
Option C: Administer the immunization using a 24-gauge needle is the appropriate action for a four-year-old child, as this gauge is suitable for pediatric vaccinations, ensuring comfort while providing effective delivery of the vaccine.
Option A: Placing the child in a prone position for the immunization is not advisable; children are typically positioned sitting or standing to facilitate easier access to the deltoid muscle and to reduce anxiety.
Option B: Requesting that the child's caregiver stay in the room during the immunization can be beneficial for the child's comfort, but it is not a required action for the administration process itself.
Option D: Injecting the immunization slowly without aspirating is standard practice for intramuscular injections, but the focus should be on using the correct needle gauge for the child's size and age.
Takeaways: Proper immunization techniques in pediatric patients require the use of an appropriate needle gauge, such as a 24-gauge, to ensure effective delivery and minimize discomfort; healthcare professionals should also be aware of best practices for administering vaccines to children.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 20 of 73
Which clinical manifestations should the nurse anticipate upon assessment for a preschool-age child with a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
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Option C: Urgency, dysuria, and fever are classic clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in preschool-age children. These symptoms reflect inflammation and irritation of the urinary tract, leading to increased urgency and painful urination, along with fever indicating a possible systemic response to infection.
Option A: Headache, hematuria, and vertigo do not typically present together in UTIs for preschool-age children. While hematuria can occur, headache and vertigo are not common symptoms associated with urinary tract infections in this age group.
Option B: Foul-smelling urine, elevated blood pressure (BP), and hematuria are not standard manifestations of a UTI in preschoolers. Although foul-smelling urine can occur, elevated BP is not a typical finding in uncomplicated UTIs in this demographic.
Option D: Severe flank pain, nausea, and headache are more indicative of pyelonephritis rather than a simple UTI. Preschool-age children usually present with milder symptoms, and flank pain is less common in this age group.
Takeaways: Recognizing urgency, dysuria, and fever as key symptoms of urinary tract infections in preschool-age children is essential for timely diagnosis and management, as these manifestations require appropriate nursing interventions and monitoring to prevent complications.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 21 of 73
A healthcare professional is planning care for an infant with hyperbilirubinemia receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?
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Rationale
Option B: Turn and reposition the infant every 4 hours. Regular repositioning is essential to prevent pressure injuries and ensure optimal exposure to phototherapy. This practice enhances the effectiveness of treatment by maximizing skin surface area exposed to the light, which is crucial for reducing bilirubin levels in infants with hyperbilirubinemia.
Option A: Dress the infant in light, breathable clothing. While appropriate clothing is important for comfort, it does not specifically address the critical need for regular repositioning during phototherapy, which is vital for effective treatment.
Option C: Offer the infant frequent, small feedings. Although frequent feedings support hydration and bilirubin excretion, this option does not directly relate to the immediate care actions needed during phototherapy, such as repositioning.
Option D: Avoid using lotions on the infant's skin. While this is a good practice to prevent skin irritation, it does not contribute directly to the management of hyperbilirubinemia during phototherapy, making it less relevant in this context.
Takeaways: Regular repositioning of the infant during phototherapy is crucial to prevent pressure injuries and optimize treatment effectiveness, which requires monitoring hydration and feeding practices to support bilirubin excretion.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 22 of 73
Undescended testis is a risk factor for the development of which of the following tumors?
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Rationale
Option C: Yolk sac tumor is associated with undescended testis as a risk factor, particularly in males. This germ cell tumor can arise in the gonadal region, and the abnormal positioning of the testis increases the likelihood of neoplastic transformation, making it a significant concern in pediatric urology.
Option A: Rhabdomyosarcoma, while a common soft tissue sarcoma in children, does not have a specific link to undescended testis. Its etiology is primarily associated with genetic predispositions rather than cryptorchidism.
Option B: Leukemia, although prevalent in pediatric populations, lacks a direct association with undescended testis. Its pathogenesis is rooted in hematological factors, independent of testicular positioning.
Option D: Lymphoma primarily arises from lymphatic tissues and is not influenced by undescended testis. Its development is more related to immune status and other systemic factors rather than anatomical anomalies of the testes.
Takeaways: Undescended testis significantly increases the risk for yolk sac tumors, underscoring the necessity for monitoring and potential surgical intervention in affected individuals, as emphasized in clinical guidelines on cryptorchidism and associated risks.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 23 of 73
A young child admitted to the pediatric unit has fever, irritability, and vomiting with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) result should the nurse anticipate based on these data?
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Rationale
Option D: Decreased glucose level is a hallmark finding in bacterial meningitis, as bacteria consume glucose, leading to lower levels in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This finding, along with elevated protein and white blood cell counts, helps confirm the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Option A: Decreased protein count is not expected in bacterial meningitis; typically, protein levels are elevated due to the inflammatory response.
Option B: Clear, straw-colored fluid is characteristic of viral meningitis, not bacterial. In bacterial meningitis, the CSF is often cloudy or turbid due to the presence of bacteria and inflammatory cells.
Option C: Positive for red blood cells (RBCs) may indicate a hemorrhagic process or trauma rather than bacterial meningitis, where RBCs are not typically present unless there is a complication such as a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
Takeaways: In bacterial meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis typically reveals a decreased glucose level, elevated protein, and an increased white blood cell count, requiring prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent complications.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 24 of 73
A parent of a child with cystic fibrosis is being taught about dietary guidelines. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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Rationale
Option A: My child should eat a high-calorie, high-protein diet. This statement reflects an understanding of the dietary needs for children with cystic fibrosis, who require increased caloric and protein intake to support growth and compensate for malabsorption issues associated with the disease.
Option B: My child should avoid eating eggs. Eggs are a good source of protein and essential nutrients, and there is no specific dietary restriction against them for children with cystic fibrosis.
Option C: My child should follow a low-fat, low-sodium diet. Children with cystic fibrosis often need higher fat intake to meet caloric needs, and sodium intake may need to be increased due to losses from sweat.
Option D: My child should follow a high-fiber, high-protein diet. While protein is important, a high-fiber diet is not specifically recommended for cystic fibrosis management and may lead to gastrointestinal discomfort in some cases.
Takeaways: Children with cystic fibrosis require a high-calorie, high-protein diet to support their growth and manage malabsorption, necessitating tailored dietary guidelines for effective management, which includes nutritional support for cystic fibrosis patients.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 25 of 73
When educating a parent of an infant with a new prescription for digoxin, which instruction should the nurse provide?
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Rationale
Option D: Monitor the infant's heart rate prior to administering the medication. This is critical because digoxin can cause bradycardia, especially in infants. Assessing the heart rate ensures that the medication is given safely, as a heart rate below the recommended threshold may necessitate withholding the dose and consulting a healthcare provider.
Option A: Repeat the dose if the infant vomits. This practice can lead to toxicity, as digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window. If vomiting occurs, the parent should consult a healthcare provider for guidance rather than automatically repeating the dose.
Option B: Mix the medication with food. This can alter the absorption of digoxin and lead to inconsistent dosing. It is essential to administer the medication as prescribed to ensure proper therapeutic levels.
Option C: Give the medication with meals. This can also affect the absorption of digoxin. It is generally recommended to administer digoxin on an empty stomach to optimize its effectiveness.
The most commonly used reference range is generally given as the mean of the reference population ±2 standard deviations. The term 'normal distribution' refers to which of the following?
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Rationale
Option A: gaussian distribution refers to the normal distribution characterized by its symmetric bell-shaped curve, where most observations cluster around the mean. This distribution is foundational in statistics, especially in defining reference ranges, as it allows for the calculation of probabilities and standard deviations.
Option B: exponential distribution describes the time between events in a Poisson process and is not symmetric, thus not applicable to the concept of normal distribution.
Option C: skewed distribution indicates a lack of symmetry in data, where values tend to cluster on one side of the mean, which contradicts the properties of a normal distribution.
Option D: uniform distribution implies that all outcomes are equally likely, lacking the bell-shaped curve characteristic of a normal distribution.
Takeaways: Understanding that the normal distribution, or gaussian distribution, is essential for interpreting statistical data and establishing reference ranges is crucial for accurate clinical assessments.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 27 of 73
A 9-month-old infant who is not sitting independently has been diagnosed with ataxic cerebral palsy (CP). Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in the baby?
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Option A: Hypotonia and muscle instability are characteristic features of ataxic cerebral palsy, which affects coordination and balance. Infants with this type of CP often exhibit low muscle tone and difficulty maintaining posture, leading to challenges in independent sitting and motor control.
Option B: Hypertonia and persistence of primitive reflexes are more commonly associated with spastic cerebral palsy. Ataxic CP typically presents with hypotonia rather than hypertonia, and primitive reflexes may not persist in the same manner.
Option C: Tremors and exaggerated posturing are indicative of dyskinetic cerebral palsy, not ataxic CP. While tremors can occur, they are not a defining feature of ataxic cerebral palsy, which primarily involves instability and coordination issues.
Option D: Hemiplegia and hypertonia are associated with spastic hemiplegic cerebral palsy. Ataxic CP does not present with hemiplegia, and hypertonia is not a typical manifestation; rather, hypotonia is more prevalent.
Takeaways: Understanding the clinical manifestations of ataxic cerebral palsy, such as hypotonia and muscle instability, is essential for effective nursing assessment and intervention. This requires knowledge of developmental milestones and motor function to guide care for affected infants.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 28 of 73
A 5-year-old girl requires a craniotomy for subarachnoid hemorrhage following a motor vehicle collision. Which of the following parameters is consistent with a postoperative diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?
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Option B: Serum sodium 128 mEq/L is consistent with a postoperative diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). In SIADH, excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) leads to water retention, resulting in dilutional hyponatremia, which is characterized by low serum sodium levels, typically below 135 mEq/L.
Option A: Serum osmolality 300 mOsm/L does not indicate SIADH, as this value is within normal limits. In SIADH, serum osmolality is typically low due to excess water retention.
Option C: Urine sodium < 20 mmol/L contradicts the expected findings in SIADH. In this condition, urine sodium is often elevated due to euvolemia and the body's response to excess water retention.
Option D: N/A does not provide any relevant clinical information or parameters related to SIADH, thus failing to address the question.
Takeaways: SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia (serum sodium < 135 mEq/L) and often elevated urine sodium levels, reflecting the body's inability to excrete excess water. Understanding these parameters is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of SIADH, which requires appropriate fluid management and monitoring to prevent complications.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 29 of 73
Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?
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Option A: The posterior fontanel is open. This finding is concerning as the posterior fontanel typically closes by 2 to 3 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at 4 months may indicate a developmental delay or other underlying issues requiring further assessment and action by the nurse.
Option B: The infant has good head control when held upright. This is an expected developmental milestone for a 4-month-old, indicating appropriate muscle strength and coordination.
Option C: The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back. At 4 months, it is typical for infants to start rolling, but they may not yet roll in both directions. This finding does not require further action.
Option D: The anterior fontanel is open and soft. An open and soft anterior fontanel is normal in infants up to 18 months. This finding does not indicate a need for further action.
Takeaways: Assessment of fontanels is crucial in evaluating infant development; an open posterior fontanel at 4 months requires further evaluation for potential issues, while normal findings align with expected growth patterns. For more information on infant development milestones, refer to CDC developmental milestones.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 30 of 73
A nurse is providing teaching to the guardian of an infant about home safety. Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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Option C: I will keep my baby's crib away from the radiator. This statement reflects an understanding of home safety by ensuring that the infant's sleeping environment is free from potential hazards such as burns or overheating, which can occur if the crib is too close to a heat source.
Option A: I will place my baby on her stomach to sleep. This practice increases the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), as infants should be placed on their backs to sleep for safety.
Option B: I will put a small pillow in my baby's crib. Pillows pose a suffocation hazard for infants and should not be used in cribs, as infants should sleep on a firm, flat surface without soft bedding.
Option D: I will use a drop-side crib for my baby. Drop-side cribs are considered unsafe due to the risk of entrapment and suffocation, as they can malfunction and create gaps that may endanger the infant.
Takeaways: Ensuring a safe sleep environment for infants requires placing them on their backs and avoiding soft bedding or hazardous items in the crib, as outlined in CDC guidelines on safe sleep.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 31 of 73
Which statement made by a parent of a child with nephrotic syndrome indicates an understanding of discharge teaching?
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Option C: I should check his urine for protein when he goes to the bathroom. This statement reflects an understanding of the importance of monitoring protein levels in the urine, which is crucial for assessing the child's nephrotic syndrome and managing the condition effectively.
Option A: I will make sure he gets his measles vaccine as soon as he gets home. Vaccination timing should be carefully considered, especially in children with nephrotic syndrome who may be on immunosuppressive therapy, which can affect vaccine efficacy.
Option B: He can stop taking his medication next week. Discontinuing medication without medical guidance can lead to a relapse of nephrotic syndrome, indicating a lack of understanding of the chronic nature of the condition.
Option D: He should eat a low-protein diet for the next few weeks. A low-protein diet is not typically recommended for children with nephrotic syndrome; instead, a balanced diet with adequate protein is essential for growth and recovery.
Takeaways: Monitoring urine for protein is essential in managing nephrotic syndrome, as it helps assess disease activity and treatment effectiveness, requiring patient education on the importance of urine testing for ongoing care.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 32 of 73
The average length of an infant at 1 year of age is
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Option C: The average length of an infant at 1 year of age is approximately 30 inches. This measurement reflects typical growth patterns during the first year, where infants generally grow about 10 inches in length from birth to their first birthday.
Option A: 10 inches is significantly below the average length for a 1-year-old infant, as most infants are much longer by this age.
Option B: 20 inches is also below the expected average length for a 1-year-old, as infants typically reach around 30 inches by this time.
Option D: 40 inches exceeds the average length for a 1-year-old, as most children do not reach this height until they are several years older.
Takeaways: Understanding average growth metrics, such as the average length of an infant at 1 year of age, is crucial for monitoring child development and ensuring proper health assessments, as detailed in growth charts from the CDC.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 33 of 73
Which of the following is not a model centered on occupation?
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Option C: Biomechanical is not a model centered on occupation, as it primarily focuses on the physical aspects of movement and function rather than the engagement in meaningful activities. This model emphasizes the mechanics of the body and its ability to perform tasks, which does not align with the occupational focus of the other models listed.
Option A: Canadian Model of Occupational Performance and Engagement emphasizes the importance of occupation in promoting health and well-being, integrating person, environment, and occupation.
Option B: Person-Environment-Occupation-Participation model highlights the interaction between the individual, their environment, and their occupations, making it fundamentally centered on occupation.
Option D: Model of Human Occupation focuses on the individual's motivations, habits, and roles within their environment, which are all occupationally driven concepts.
Takeaways: Understanding the distinction between models that prioritize occupation and those that do not is crucial for effective occupational therapy practice, as seen in the Canadian Model of Occupational Performance and its emphasis on holistic engagement in meaningful activities.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 34 of 73
A 7-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis has gross hematuria and has been confined to bed. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for this child?
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Option A: Providing activities for the child on restricted activity is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a child with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition necessitates bed rest to reduce stress on the kidneys and prevent exacerbation of symptoms like hematuria. Engaging the child in suitable activities while adhering to activity restrictions can help maintain their emotional well-being during recovery.
Option B: Feeding the child a protein-restricted diet is not the primary nursing intervention. While dietary modifications may be necessary in some cases of glomerulonephritis, the immediate focus should be on managing activity levels and monitoring symptoms rather than dietary restrictions.
Option C: Carefully handling edematous extremities is important, but it does not address the primary concern of activity restriction. The focus should be on ensuring the child remains at rest to minimize kidney workload and manage hematuria effectively.
Option D: Observing the child for evidence of hypotension is a relevant nursing action, but it is not the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. The priority is to ensure the child is engaged in limited activities while monitoring their overall condition.
Takeaways: The management of acute glomerulonephritis in children emphasizes the importance of bed rest and restricted activity to reduce kidney stress and prevent complications, which requires appropriate nursing interventions and monitoring during recovery.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 35 of 73
What is the corrected age of a child born at 30 weeks gestation on May 2, 2014, who is being tested on August 5, 2014?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 36 of 73
Which level nursery classifications are housed in institutions that can provide on-site surgical repair of serious congenital or acquired malformations?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 37 of 73
A healthy 4-year-old child has a left flank mass. Computerized tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen shows a localized renal mass. Radical nephrectomy is performed; the histology shows clear cell sarcoma of the kidney. The MOST appropriate next step in the management is
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 38 of 73
Which assessment finding, after the dialysate is drained during peritoneal dialysis for a child experiencing acute renal failure, would warrant further action by the nurse?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 39 of 73
The pediatric nurse cares for a patient who received chemotherapy 10 days ago. Which laboratory value requires the nurse's intervention?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 40 of 73
A child returns from exploratory surgery following a gunshot wound to the abdomen. Which nursing intervention should be excluded from the plan of care?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 41 of 73
A patient taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne vulgaris. Which statement indicates that the patient teaching has been effective?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 42 of 73
Which question does not provide information regarding the family's cultural values?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 43 of 73
A client has a new diagnosis of celiac disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 44 of 73
A 6-year-old male child presented with a cerebellar mass; after undergoing complete surgical resection of the mass, the histology of the mass reveals pilocytic astrocytoma. Of the following, the MOST appropriate next step in the management is
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 45 of 73
A nurse provides dietary teaching to the guardian of a school-age child with cystic fibrosis. Which statement should the nurse make?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 46 of 73
Which is NOT one of the functions of challenging behaviors?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 47 of 73
A school nurse is assessing a school-age child's blood pressure while he is seated in a chair. The child starts to experience a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 48 of 73
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 49 of 73
The BEST car safety issues for a 3-year-child is
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 50 of 73
A preschooler is scheduled for hydrotherapy treatment for wound debridement following a burn injury. Which of the following actions should be taken prior to the procedure?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 51 of 73
The nurse is expecting the admission of a child with severe isotonic dehydration. Which intravenous fluid prescription does the nurse anticipate for this child?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 52 of 73
A 9-mo-old infant is recently diagnosed with bilateral retinoblastoma; examination under anesthesia reveals bilateral multifocal involvement of the retina. An important next step in the management is
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 53 of 73
What is the most appropriate nursing consideration for a patient who is prescribed verapamil and digoxin?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 54 of 73
A healthcare professional is assessing an infant who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 55 of 73
In which frame of reference does the child select activities that involve responses to movement, balance, weight bearing, and tactile activities?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 56 of 73
You are evaluating a 9-year-old boy child with ALL who recently develops relapse; an important statement that should be mentioned to his parents is
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 57 of 73
A toddler is admitted to the surgical unit for a planned closure of a temporary colostomy. Which medical prescription should the nurse question?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 58 of 73
A child receives a vaccine for MMR. Six hours after the injection, the child's parent reports local soreness, erythema, lethargy, and a fever of 101°F to a nurse. Which action should the nurse take?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 59 of 73
Postanesthetic respiratory illness in premature infants should be avoided in infants younger than what postconceptual age?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 60 of 73
A 30-month-old apparently well child presented with stomping, hitting, head banging, and falling down for few minutes every few days.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 61 of 73
A child with sickle cell anemia is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 62 of 73
When the home health nurse visits the home of a 10-month-old child, she observes the environment for risks of injury to the child. Which observation will the nurse discuss with the mother?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 63 of 73
Mary is excited to work with the family of a friend with whom she has lost contact. Mary hopes the family will be able to connect her with her friend and is looking forward to hearing about her friend. At the next session, she asks the mother many questions about her friend and they spend a lot of time discussing their home town, etc. Which statement describes this scenario?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 64 of 73
Small round blue cell tumors refer to all the following EXCEPT
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 65 of 73
What is it called when the therapist brings a toy closer to the child so they can successfully reach and grasp it during therapy?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 66 of 73
The patient taking warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis has an INR of 1.2. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 67 of 73
A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 68 of 73
The nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of digoxin. What is the priority nursing intervention?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 69 of 73
The age at which the infant can achieve early head control with bobbing motion when pulled to sit is
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 70 of 73
As a result of opioid administration, a child's respirations are slow and shallow. Which should the nurse anticipate when assessing the child's arterial blood gas?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 71 of 73
Which of the following is a key feature of the diagnosis of ASD according to the DSM V?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 72 of 73
A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
Question 73 of 73
The child who continues to search for a hidden subject has achieved the developmental age of
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