A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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Rationale
Option A: Assessing neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours is essential in the immediate postoperative period to detect any signs of complications such as compartment syndrome or impaired circulation. This frequent assessment ensures timely intervention if any issues arise, which is critical for patient safety and recovery.
Option B: Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours does not provide adequate oversight in the early postoperative phase. Pain levels can fluctuate significantly, and more frequent assessments are necessary to manage pain effectively and adjust analgesic interventions promptly.
Option C: Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours may not be appropriate immediately after surgery. Patients often require assistance and may be at risk for falls or complications due to anesthesia effects and mobility limitations, necessitating more cautious management.
Option D: Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows is a supportive measure; however, it does not address the critical need for immediate neurovascular assessment. While elevation can help reduce swelling, it should not replace the priority of monitoring neurovascular status.
Takeaways: Regular assessment of neurovascular status is crucial in the postoperative period to prevent complications such as compartment syndrome and ensure proper recovery, requiring [frequent monitoring of extremities](https://...) to maintain patient safety.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 2 of 73
Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient being started on levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) for newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease?
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B. Change positions slowly is a critical teaching point for patients starting levodopa/carbidopa therapy, as orthostatic hypotension can occur, leading to dizziness or falls. Patients should be advised to rise slowly from sitting or lying positions to minimize these risks.
Option A: Taking medication on a full stomach can actually reduce the absorption of levodopa, as protein can interfere with its effectiveness. It is often recommended to take it on an empty stomach or with a light snack.
Option C: The drug does not cause the urine to be very dilute; rather, it can lead to darker urine due to the metabolites of levodopa. Patients should be informed about this potential change.
Option D: While carbidopa can have side effects, it is primarily used to prevent levodopa from converting to dopamine before reaching the brain, enhancing its efficacy. The focus should be on the overall management of side effects rather than labeling carbidopa as having many adverse effects.
Takeaways: Educating patients on the importance of changing positions slowly is essential to prevent falls due to orthostatic hypotension when starting levodopa/carbidopa therapy, which requires [careful monitoring for side effects](https://...) during treatment.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 3 of 73
Which statement is not a principle of family-centered care?
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Option D: Set strict rules for families to follow does not align with the principles of family-centered care, which emphasizes collaboration and respect for family autonomy. Family-centered care prioritizes the needs and preferences of families, allowing for flexibility and partnership in the care process.
Option A: Respect family autonomy is a fundamental principle of family-centered care, recognizing the importance of involving families in decision-making regarding their care.
Option B: Provide flexible services is essential in family-centered care, as it allows for the unique needs of each family to be met, promoting a supportive environment.
Option C: Collaborate with family members is a core tenet of family-centered care, fostering teamwork between healthcare providers and families to enhance patient outcomes.
Takeaways: Family-centered care prioritizes respect for family autonomy, flexibility in services, and collaboration with family members, while setting strict rules undermines these principles and fails to support effective family engagement in care. For further insights on family-centered practices, see [family-centered care principles](https://...).
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Question 4 of 73
Marge is a 2-year-old girl who does not sit and eat at mealtimes but rather brings food to many rooms, eats a few bites, and drops it. Her parents report that she is a 'fussy eater.' Marge is significantly below weight for her age. She does not have any oral motor structure abnormalities, but eats only certain foods with the same texture. Which intervention strategy would be best to address the environmental context?
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Rationale
Option B: Provide high-calorie snacks and meals at the table throughout the day. This strategy addresses Marge's environmental context by creating a structured mealtime setting that encourages her to eat more consistently and healthily. By offering high-calorie options, it also helps her gain weight, which is crucial given her current underweight status and selective eating habits.
Option A: Prolonging mealtimes and eliminating all snacks may lead to increased frustration and resistance to eating, particularly for a fussy eater. This approach does not create a supportive environment conducive to improving her nutritional intake.
Option C: Allowing Marge to eat whenever and wherever she wants in the house can reinforce her disorganized eating patterns and does not promote a structured mealtime routine, which is essential for her development and weight gain.
Option D: Requiring Marge to eat everything on her plate and at snack can create negative associations with mealtime, potentially exacerbating her fussy eating and resistance to trying new foods. This approach does not consider her current eating behaviors and preferences.
Takeaways: Providing high-calorie snacks and meals at the table throughout the day is essential for addressing the environmental context of a fussy eater and ensuring adequate nutrition, especially for children who may struggle with weight gain and food variety. This approach requires [consistent mealtime structure and positive reinforcement](https://...) to promote healthy eating habits.
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Question 5 of 73
Extraneural metastasis from primary brain tumors is MOST commonly likely to occur in which tumor?
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Rationale
Option A: Extraneural metastasis from primary brain tumors is most commonly associated with medulloblastoma, particularly in pediatric patients. This tumor has a propensity to spread to distant sites, including the lungs and bones, due to its aggressive nature and the tendency for cerebrospinal fluid dissemination.
Option B: Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (PNET) can metastasize, but they are less common than medulloblastoma in terms of extraneural spread. PNETs primarily affect the central nervous system and have a different metastatic profile.
Option C: Ependymomas typically do not exhibit a high rate of extraneural metastasis. They are more localized tumors that primarily spread within the central nervous system rather than to distant sites.
Option D: Malignant gliomas, while aggressive, primarily metastasize within the central nervous system and have a lower incidence of extraneural spread compared to medulloblastoma.
Takeaways: Medulloblastoma is the primary brain tumor most likely to exhibit extraneural metastasis, necessitating awareness of potential distant spread to optimize [treatment strategies and monitoring](https://...) for affected patients.
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Question 6 of 73
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method to decrease the incidence of PONV?
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Rationale
Option B: Hydration using ketorolac does not effectively decrease the incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) primarily used for pain management and does not have antiemetic properties that would mitigate PONV.
Option A: Preoperative fasting can help reduce the risk of PONV by minimizing gastric contents, which decreases the likelihood of aspiration and nausea during and after anesthesia.
Option C: Glucose supplementation can help maintain energy levels and may reduce the incidence of PONV by preventing hypoglycemia, which is a known trigger for nausea.
Option D: Prophylactic use of ondansetron is a standard practice to prevent PONV, as it is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that effectively reduces nausea and vomiting in postoperative patients.
Takeaways: Effective management of PONV includes strategies like preoperative fasting, glucose supplementation, and the prophylactic use of ondansetron, while hydration using [ketorolac does not contribute](https://...) to reducing PONV incidence due to its lack of antiemetic effects.
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Question 7 of 73
Why should a healthcare professional take time to get to know the things a family does together, their weekly routine, and an explanation of family dynamics?
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Rationale
Option A: Involvement in family is central to best practice. Understanding a family's routine and dynamics allows healthcare professionals to provide tailored care that respects their values and enhances engagement. This approach fosters a supportive environment, which is crucial for effective health interventions and outcomes in pediatrics and obstetrics.
Option B: It is not necessary, but it is beneficial. While it may provide some advantages, understanding family dynamics is essential for delivering comprehensive care, not merely a beneficial addition.
Option C: To gather demographic information for documentation purposes. This option trivializes the importance of family involvement, reducing it to mere data collection rather than recognizing its role in holistic patient care.
Option D: To assess if they have values that align with the practitioner's. This perspective is limited, as the focus should be on understanding the family's unique values and needs rather than aligning them with the practitioner's.
Takeaways: Understanding family dynamics and routines is a priority for [effective pediatric care and family-centered practice](https://...) as it enhances the quality of healthcare delivery and patient engagement.
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Question 8 of 73
Which statement most reflects the observation that the infant sleeps soundly, awakens on his own, and maintains a quiet alert state?
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Rationale
Option C: This shows the infant is making neurological gains. The ability of an infant to sleep soundly, awaken independently, and maintain a quiet alert state indicates healthy neurological development and self-regulation, which are critical milestones in early infancy.
Option A: This behavior is typical for infants and does not require intervention. Atypical behavior would involve excessive crying or difficulty transitioning between sleep states.
Option B: Infants naturally cycle between alert and sleep states; maintaining high alertness is not necessary and can lead to overstimulation.
Option D: The observation does not suggest any disruption in sleep patterns by the family; rather, it reflects normal sleep behavior for a developing infant.
Takeaways: Infants demonstrating sound sleep, self-awakening, and quiet alertness indicate positive neurological development, which is a priority for [monitoring infant growth and development](https://...) in pediatric care.
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Question 9 of 73
A nurse is auscultating the lungs of an adolescent who has asthma. The nurse should identify the sound as which of the following?
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Question 10 of 73
Why is it important to assess for in a child receiving prednisone to treat nephrotic syndrome?
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Rationale
Option A: Infection is a critical concern when a child is receiving prednisone for nephrotic syndrome due to the immunosuppressive effects of corticosteroids. Prednisone can decrease the body's ability to fight infections, making regular assessment for signs of infection essential to prevent complications.
Option B: Urinary retention is not a common side effect of prednisone and does not typically relate to the management of nephrotic syndrome. Monitoring for urinary issues is not prioritized in this context.
Option C: Easy bruising can occur due to the effects of prednisone on blood vessels and platelet function; however, it is not as critical as assessing for infection, which poses a more immediate risk to the child's health.
Option D: Hypoglycemia is not a typical concern with prednisone use, as corticosteroids more commonly lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, monitoring for hypoglycemia is not necessary in this scenario.
Takeaways: Monitoring for infection is vital in children receiving prednisone for nephrotic syndrome due to the drug's immunosuppressive effects, which can increase susceptibility to infections. Regular assessments are essential for timely intervention and management of potential complications. For more information on the effects of corticosteroids, see Corticosteroids: MedlinePlus.
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Question 11 of 73
A nurse is caring for a school-age child with primary nephrotic syndrome who is taking prednisone. After 1 week of treatment, which manifestation indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
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Rationale
Option A: Decreased edema indicates that the prednisone is effectively reducing inflammation and proteinuria associated with primary nephrotic syndrome. This is a key therapeutic goal, as it reflects improved fluid balance and kidney function after treatment initiation.
Option B: Increased abdominal girth suggests worsening fluid retention, which is contrary to the expected outcome of effective treatment with prednisone.
Option C: Decreased appetite can occur with prednisone use but does not indicate treatment effectiveness; rather, it may reflect side effects of the medication.
Option D: Increased protein in the urine signifies ongoing nephron damage and is a sign that the treatment is not achieving its intended effect of reducing proteinuria.
Takeaways: Effective management of primary nephrotic syndrome with prednisone is indicated by decreased edema, reflecting improved kidney function and fluid balance, which requires monitoring for therapeutic response and side effects during treatment.
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Question 12 of 73
Although most relapses in children with Wilms tumor occur early (within 2 yr of diagnosis) and have a favorable outcome, about 15% suffer relapse. Relapse includes all the following EXCEPT
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Option C: Anaplastic histology represents a high-risk factor for relapse in Wilms tumor, thus making it a significant concern rather than an exception. Relapses are more common in patients with anaplastic features, which correlate with poorer outcomes.
Option A: Low stage (I/II) at diagnosis typically indicates a better prognosis and lower risk of relapse, making it a less likely factor for relapse in Wilms tumor.
Option B: No prior radiotherapy is associated with a lower risk of relapse, as radiotherapy is often a treatment for higher-risk cases. Thus, this option does not contribute to the risk of relapse.
Option D: More than 12 months from nephrectomy can indicate a favorable outcome, as late relapses are less common and often associated with better prognoses.
Takeaways: Understanding the risk factors for relapse in Wilms tumor is crucial, as anaplastic histology significantly increases the likelihood of recurrence, while lower stage at diagnosis and absence of prior radiotherapy are associated with better outcomes. For more information on Wilms tumor management, see National Cancer Institute's Wilms Tumor Treatment.
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Question 13 of 73
A 4-year-old hospitalized with failure to thrive (FTT) has orders for daily weights, strict I&O, and calorie counts. Which action by the nurse is a concern?
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Rationale
Option A: Weighing the child every morning after breakfast is a concern because it does not provide an accurate measure of the child's weight status. Weighing should occur at the same time each day, preferably in the morning before any food intake, to ensure consistency and reliability in tracking weight changes.
Option B: Weighing the child with only undergarments on is appropriate as it minimizes additional weight from clothing, ensuring a more accurate measurement of the child's body weight.
Option C: Sitting with the child while she eats her meals supports the child’s nutritional intake and can improve the eating experience, which is beneficial for a child with failure to thrive.
Option D: Weighing the child after she has been fed can lead to inaccurate weight assessments, as recent food intake can artificially inflate the weight reading and does not reflect the child's true weight status.
Takeaways: Consistent weight measurements are crucial for monitoring children with failure to thrive, requiring weights to be taken at the same time daily, ideally before eating, to ensure accuracy. For more information on monitoring growth and development in children, refer to this resource on pediatric growth.
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Question 14 of 73
Which statement by the parents indicates understanding of the process involved with a kidney transplant for a child with renal failure?
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Option D: We know it is important to ensure that our child takes prescribed medications after the transplant. This statement reflects an accurate understanding of the post-transplant care necessary for preventing organ rejection and maintaining kidney function, as immunosuppressive medications are crucial for transplant recipients.
Option A: We are happy our child will not have to take any more medicine after the transplant. This statement is misleading; transplant recipients must take lifelong medications to prevent rejection and manage health.
Option B: We understand our child will not be at risk anymore for catching colds from other children at school. This is inaccurate; while the child may have a new kidney, immunosuppressive therapy increases the risk of infections, including respiratory illnesses.
Option C: We will be glad we will not have to bring our child in to see the doctor again. This statement is false; regular follow-up appointments are essential for monitoring kidney function and medication adherence post-transplant.
Takeaways: Understanding the necessity of lifelong medication adherence after a kidney transplant is crucial for preventing rejection and ensuring the health of the transplant. This requires patient education on post-transplant care to promote adherence and monitor health effectively.
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Question 15 of 73
A child with nephrotic syndrome has not experienced diuresis after a month on corticosteroids. What protocol can the nurse encourage to induce diuresis?
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Rationale
Option B: Furosemide (Lasix), a diuretic, is the appropriate choice to encourage diuresis in a child with nephrotic syndrome who has not responded to corticosteroids. Furosemide works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, promoting increased urine output and helping to manage fluid overload associated with nephrotic syndrome.
Option A: Ibuprofen, an anti-inflammatory agent, does not induce diuresis and may actually worsen renal function in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to its potential nephrotoxic effects.
Option C: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), an antibiotic, is used to treat bacterial infections and has no role in promoting diuresis or managing fluid retention in nephrotic syndrome.
Option D: Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), an immunosuppressant, is used in severe cases of nephrotic syndrome but does not directly induce diuresis and is not indicated for immediate management of fluid overload.
Takeaways: Furosemide is a key diuretic used in nephrotic syndrome to promote diuresis when corticosteroids fail, as it effectively enhances urine output by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, which is critical for managing fluid overload. For more details, refer to nephrotic syndrome management guidelines.
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Question 16 of 73
An adolescent client reports recurrent abdominal pain with diarrhea and bloody stools. Which type of inflammatory bowel disease does the nurse suspect based on these data?
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Option B: Ulcerative colitis (UC) is characterized by recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools, particularly in adolescents. This condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to inflammation and ulceration, which aligns with the client's symptoms.
Option A: Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) typically occurs in premature infants and is associated with intestinal necrosis, not recurrent abdominal pain and bloody stools in adolescents.
Option C: Crohn's disease can cause abdominal pain and diarrhea but is less likely to present with bloody stools as a predominant symptom compared to ulcerative colitis.
Option D: Appendicitis usually presents with localized abdominal pain, often in the right lower quadrant, and does not typically cause recurrent diarrhea or bloody stools.
Takeaways: Ulcerative colitis in adolescents presents with recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools, necessitating appropriate diagnostic evaluation and management to prevent complications.
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Question 17 of 73
Although melanoma is relatively rare in children, some risk factors may increase its incidence. All the following are risk factors for development of melanoma EXCEPT
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Option B: Dark-skinned child. Melanoma is less common in individuals with darker skin due to increased melanin, which provides some protection against UV radiation, a significant risk factor for melanoma development.
Option A: Positive family history of melanoma. A family history of melanoma significantly increases an individual's risk, as genetic predispositions can play a crucial role in the development of this skin cancer.
Option C: Hairy nevus. A hairy nevus is considered a risk factor for melanoma, as it may indicate a higher likelihood of malignant transformation, especially if it has atypical features.
Option D: Dysplastic nevus. Dysplastic nevi are associated with an increased risk of melanoma due to their atypical appearance and potential for malignant change, making them a significant concern in skin assessments.
Takeaways: Understanding the risk factors for melanoma, such as family history and the presence of dysplastic nevi, is crucial for early detection and prevention strategies. Dark-skinned individuals generally have a lower risk, as melanin offers some protective effects against UV exposure, which requires patient education on skin cancer prevention to mitigate risks effectively.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 18 of 73
Regarding swaddling, one of the following is correct
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Option B: swaddling is effective if practiced before a crying episode. Swaddling provides a sense of security and comfort to infants, which can help prevent crying by mimicking the womb environment. Implementing swaddling proactively can enhance its calming effects on infants.
Option A: swaddling is effective if practiced during a crying episode. While swaddling may still provide comfort during crying, its effectiveness is significantly reduced once the infant is already distressed, making proactive swaddling more beneficial.
Option C: there is no place for swaddling to calm a crying infant. This statement overlooks the established benefits of swaddling in providing comfort and security, which can help soothe infants when used appropriately.
Option D: swaddling may interfere with vascular supply. Proper swaddling techniques, when executed correctly, do not compromise vascular supply; rather, they should allow for adequate movement and circulation of the limbs.
Takeaways: Swaddling can be an effective technique to calm infants when practiced before a crying episode, as it mimics the womb and provides comfort. Understanding the appropriate use of swaddling is essential for promoting infant well-being and safety, which requires guidance on safe swaddling practices to prevent potential risks.
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Question 19 of 73
A patient is prescribed Lisinopril as part of the treatment plan for heart failure. Which finding indicates the patient is experiencing the therapeutic effect of this drug?
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Option C: Crackles in the lungs are no longer heard indicates the therapeutic effect of Lisinopril in heart failure management, as it suggests improved pulmonary congestion and reduced fluid overload due to the drug's action as an ACE inhibitor, leading to vasodilation and decreased afterload.
Option A: #ERROR! does not provide a valid clinical finding relevant to the therapeutic effects of Lisinopril.
Option B: A potassium level of 3.5mEq/L does not specifically indicate the therapeutic effect of Lisinopril; while potassium levels are monitored due to the risk of hyperkalemia, this value is within normal limits and does not reflect heart failure improvement.
Option D: Jugular vein distention signifies fluid overload and worsening heart failure rather than a therapeutic effect of Lisinopril, which aims to alleviate such symptoms.
Takeaways: Effective management of heart failure with Lisinopril is indicated by the resolution of symptoms such as pulmonary congestion, exemplified by the absence of crackles in the lungs, which requires monitoring for signs of fluid overload to assess treatment efficacy.
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Question 20 of 73
A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
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Option B: Avoid venipunctures whenever possible is a critical intervention for a child with thrombocytopenia, as this condition is characterized by a low platelet count, increasing the risk of bleeding. Minimizing invasive procedures helps reduce the likelihood of complications such as hematomas or excessive bleeding.
Option A: Administering aspirin as needed for fever poses a significant risk, as aspirin can further inhibit platelet function and increase bleeding risk in patients with thrombocytopenia.
Option C: Encouraging participation in contact sports is contraindicated, as these activities can lead to injuries and bleeding, which are particularly dangerous for a child with low platelet levels.
Option D: Administering ibuprofen for pain is inappropriate, as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen can also impair platelet function and increase the risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenic patients.
Takeaways: Understanding the management of thrombocytopenia involves avoiding invasive procedures and medications that can exacerbate bleeding risks, such as aspirin and NSAIDs.
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 21 of 73
During a home care visit for an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux, which parental action observed requires intervention by the nurse?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 22 of 73
A caregiver is providing teaching about car seat use to the mother of a six-month-old infant. Which of the following statements by the mother indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 23 of 73
What important information should the nurse provide to a patient taking a tetracycline antibiotic?
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Question 24 of 73
A healthcare provider is planning care for a child with hyperkalemia. Which manifestation associated with the documented hyperkalemia requires immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
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Question 25 of 73
For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
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Question 26 of 73
In caring for an adolescent with severe abdominal pain due to appendicitis, where should the nurse identify as McBurney's point?
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Question 27 of 73
The 6-year-old child scheduled for an orchiopexy shyly asks the nurse, 'What are they going to do to me 'down there'? What is the nurse's best response?
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Question 28 of 73
A child with a history of seizures arrives in the emergency department (ED) in status epilepticus. Which is the priority nursing action?
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Question 29 of 73
The nurse is teaching a patient who has a new prescription for spironolactone (Aldactone). Which statement by the patient indicated that the teaching was effective?
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Question 30 of 73
All the following are parasomniac disorders EXCEPT
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Question 31 of 73
Which parental statement indicates correct understanding of preventive techniques for heat-related illnesses when children exercise?
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Question 32 of 73
Which of the following statements best describes the benefit of using an occupation-centered practice model?
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Question 33 of 73
Why is it important to share information with the family about why you are asking certain things as you evaluate the child?
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Question 34 of 73
A 6-year-old child with daytime enuresis complains of dysuria and urgency. What does the nurse recognize these signs and symptoms indicate?
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Question 35 of 73
Which statement best describes the use of activity or task analysis?
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Question 36 of 73
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has moderate persistent asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
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Question 37 of 73
Which causes the clinical manifestations of hydronephrosis?
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Question 38 of 73
What is functional behavior analysis?
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Question 39 of 73
A child is being assessed for possible appendicitis with perforation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
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Question 40 of 73
A child is in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury. Which of the following interventions should be included in the plan of care?
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Question 41 of 73
The child who walks alone, makes a tower of 3 cubes, inserts a raisin in a bottle, and identifies 1 or more parts of the body is
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Question 42 of 73
Ava is a 6-year-old girl with spina bifida who is generally happy to be at occupational therapy. On this day, she comes to therapy looking sad and tearful. She tells the therapist that she had a fight with her best friend at recess. What type of characteristic is described in this scenario?
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Question 43 of 73
A parent of a toddler with congenital heart disease is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
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Question 44 of 73
The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.
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Question 45 of 73
Which urinalysis result should the nurse anticipate for a child admitted with acute glomerulonephritis?
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Question 46 of 73
During the first two years of life, patients with bronchopulmonary dysplasia requiring rehospitalization are most likely to be diagnosed with:
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Question 47 of 73
A patient who has PUD and is receiving magnesium hydroxide (MOM) is experiencing an increased number of BM. Which is the nurse's priority action?
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Question 48 of 73
A parent of a preschooler is being taught by a nurse about administering ear drops. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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Question 49 of 73
A newborn's parents are being taught about ways to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following instructions should be included?
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Question 50 of 73
A neonate with a meningomyelocele is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Which nursing action is appropriate for this neonate?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 51 of 73
Which medication is most likely to cause serious respiratory depression as a potential adverse reaction?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 52 of 73
How would you best evaluate the clinical usefulness of a test?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 53 of 73
Which parental statement at the end of a teaching session by the nurse indicates correct understanding of colostomy stoma care for the infant client?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 54 of 73
The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends the fasting total cholesterol level is elevated when serum cholesterol is
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Question 55 of 73
A teacher states to the school nurse, 'I have a student who will often just stare at me for 15 seconds after asking a question; then the student blinks and asks me to repeat the question. Should I be concerned?' Which should the nurse include in the response to the teacher?
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Question 56 of 73
A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is under the care of a nurse. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
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ATI RN · ATI Pediatric Practice Questions
Question 57 of 73
Prenatal exposure to cigarette smoke is associated with
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Question 58 of 73
A parent of a child with HIV is being educated by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
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Question 59 of 73
A patient is receiving glucocorticoids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient complains of having a headache. Which ordered medication should the nurse administer?
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Question 60 of 73
When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?
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Question 61 of 73
A child is being assessed for acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
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Question 62 of 73
A toddler in the emergency department has partial thickness burns on his right arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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Question 63 of 73
Which statement best reflects a top-down approach to the evaluation process?
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Question 64 of 73
When teaching a parent of a 2-month-old infant with acute gastroenteritis who is bottle feeding, which of the following statements should the nurse include?
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Question 65 of 73
Which statement is true regarding playful children?
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Question 66 of 73
Radiotherapy is an effective modality of treatment in variable pediatric solid tumors. Of the following, the LEAST responsive tumor to radiotherapy is
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Question 67 of 73
A child is being cared for by a nurse and has rheumatic fever. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
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Question 68 of 73
A nurse is teaching a group of parents about preventing childhood obesity. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
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Question 69 of 73
Constellation of aniridia and hemihypertrophy is strongly associated with increased risk of which of the following tumors?
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Question 70 of 73
Abrupt withdrawal of baclofen may cause
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Question 71 of 73
Metabolic derangement secondary to tumor lysis syndrome in children includes all the following EXCEPT
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Question 72 of 73
Children with ALL who carry poor outcome include all the following EXCEPT
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Question 73 of 73
The age of a child who imitates construction of a bridge of 3 cubes; copies circle; makes tower of 10 cubes is
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